Answer:
Annual deposit (PMT) = $1,567,060.39
Explanation:
Given:
Future value of annuity due = $8,000,000
Rate of interest(r) = 10% = 0.1
Number of year (n) = 4 year
Annual deposit (PMT) = ?
Computation of annual deposit :
\\\\8,000,000 = PMT [\frac{(1+0.1)^4-1}{0.1} ](1+0.1)\\\\8,000,000 = PMT [\frac{(1.1)^4-1}{0.1} ](1.1)\\\\8,000,000 = PMT [\frac{(0.4641}{0.1} ](1.1)\\\\8,000,000 = PMT [5.1051]\\PMT = 1,567,060.39](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Future%5C%20value%5C%20of%5C%20annuity%5C%20due%20%3D%20PMT%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281%2Br%29%5En-1%7D%7Br%7D%20%5D%281%2Br%29%5C%5C%5C%5C8%2C000%2C000%20%3D%20PMT%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281%2B0.1%29%5E4-1%7D%7B0.1%7D%20%5D%281%2B0.1%29%5C%5C%5C%5C8%2C000%2C000%20%3D%20PMT%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281.1%29%5E4-1%7D%7B0.1%7D%20%5D%281.1%29%5C%5C%5C%5C8%2C000%2C000%20%3D%20PMT%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%280.4641%7D%7B0.1%7D%20%5D%281.1%29%5C%5C%5C%5C8%2C000%2C000%20%3D%20PMT%20%5B5.1051%5D%5C%5CPMT%20%3D%201%2C567%2C060.39)
Annual deposit (PMT) = $1,567,060.39
Answer:
$120,000.00
Explanation:
Depreciable cost is the amount of money that can be depreciated over time from the value of an asset. It is the total book value an asset loses for being in production in its useful life. Depreciable cost is important is calculating the annual depreciation.
Depreciable cost is a result of the cost of an asset minus its expected salvage value.
In case case: $150,000- $ 30,000
=$120,000.00
Depreciable value is $120,000
Answer:
The answer is $169,400
Explanation:
Gross profit is a line item under income statement and it is the difference between net sales(revenue) and cost of sales. It is a measure of profitability ( net sales - cost of sales?
Cost of sales = beginning Inventory + purchases - ending Inventory
$27,600 + $174,800 - $37,800
$164,600.
Now, cost of sales is: ( net sales - cost of sales)
$334,000 - $163,800
=$169,400
Answer:
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Explanation:
Complete question:
On January 1. Year 1. White Co. sold a property with a remaining useful life of 20 years to Blue Co. for $900.000. At the same time. White entered into a contract with Blue for the right to use the property (leaseback) for a period of 6 years. with annual rental payments of 580.000 that approximate the market rental payments for similar properties. On January 1. Year 1. the carrying amount of the property was 5680.000. and its fair value was 5770.000. A discount rate for the lease of 10% is used by both White and Blue. The present value factor for an ordinary annuity at 10% for 6 periods is 4.3553. The lease does not transfer the property to White at the end of the lease term and does not include a purchase option.
What amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1 ?
A. $0
B. $130,000
C. $90,000
D. $220,000
Answer:
$90,000 amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1
Explanation:
If the leaseback is known as an operating lease, the original transition to the buyer-lessor of the asset should be taken into account as the selling of an asset, given that all the income identification requirements have been fulfilled.
If the deal is of equal value, the lender lease is informed of the gain or loss of sale between the purchase price and the sum of the land that is held. Yet this is not a equal value trade. The property's sale price is higher than its market value. Accordingly, the income or loss on sale seems to be the difference between the equal worth and the value of the land.
Therefore, on 1 January, White records a benefit of $90,000 in revenue of $770,000 (fair value of $680,000 in carrying amounts)
