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3 years ago

Anybody help me? please

Mathematics

1 answer:

liq [111]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

0 because we can't have Repetitious x in function.

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Find the missing side (X) round to the nearest hundredth

nata0808 [166]

Answer:

$\displaystyle 18,28 ≈ x$

Step-by-step explanation:

$\displaystyle \frac{x}{11} = csc\:37 \hookrightarrow 11csc\:37 = x \hookrightarrow 18,278041552... = x \\ \\ 18,28 \approx x$

$\displaystyle \frac{11}{x} = sin\:37 \hookrightarrow xsin\:37 = 11 \hookrightarrow \frac{11}{sin\:37} = x \hookrightarrow 18,278041552... = x \\ \\ 18,28 \approx x$

Information on trigonometric ratios

$\displaystyle \frac{OPPOCITE}{HYPOTENUSE} = sin\:θ \\ \frac{ADJACENT}{HYPOTENUSE} = cos\:θ \\ \frac{OPPOCITE}{ADJACENT} = tan\:θ \\ \frac{HYPOTENUSE}{ADJACENT} = sec\:θ \\ \frac{HYPOTENUSE}{OPPOCITE} = csc\:θ \\ \frac{ADJACENT}{OPPOCITE} = cot\:θ$

I am joyous to assist you at any time.

7 0

2 years ago

Help if you understand please and thanks

wlad13 [49]

Answer:

y = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

because 5 x 4 = 20 and 20 × 4 = 80 and so on y is equal to four

6 0

3 years ago

Realy easy question for soo many points

Art [367]

Answer: 129

Step-by-step explanation:

It is 129 because y is less than 70 so the greatest possible value for that is 69 and z is less than or equal to 60 so 69 + 60 =129

4 0

3 years ago

A map has a scale of 1 centimeter = 40 kilometer. If the distance between Fort Worth and El Paso is 21.7 cm on a map , how many

ryzh [129]

Aloha!
1 centimeter= 40 kilometers
The distance between the cities in centimeters is 21.7
To get the answer into kilometers, you multiply.
So, 21.7 times 40 which is 868 kilometers.
To answer your question, the distance between Fort Worth and El Paso is 868 kilometers.
I hope this helps!
Adios!:)

5 0

3 years ago

In a group of mherchants, 80% of them purchase goods from Asia, and 25% of them purchase goods from Europe. Which of following s

monitta

Answer:

7. 25% of the merchants who purchase goods from Asia also purchase from Europe.

Step-by-step explanation:

I am going to say that:

A is the percentage of merchants who purchase goods from Asia.

B is the percentage of merchants who purchase goods from Europe.

We have that:

$A = a + (A \cap B)$

In which a is the probability that a merchant purchases goods from Asia but not from Europe and $A \cap B$ is the probability that a merchant purchases goods from both Asia and Europe.

By the same logic, we have that:

$B = b + (A \cap B)$

Which of following statement is individually sufficient to calculate what percent of the merchants in the group purchase goods from Europe but not form Asia?

We already have B.

Knowing $A \cap B$ , that is, the percentage of those who purchase from both Asia and Europe, we can find b.

So the correct answer is:

7. 25% of the merchants who purchase goods from Asia also purchase from Europe.

8 0

3 years ago