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Tpy6a [65]
3 years ago
12

Match the graph to the correct inequality.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Trava [24]3 years ago
8 0
The answer to the question is b
rusak2 [61]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's understand the graph.

A line is drawn starting in 4.5 and involving all numbers greater than 4.5.

But notice that in the starting point the line is drawn with an open circle, this means that the line does not consider 4.5 as part of its domain, this means that 'k' values are greater than 4.5.

Values greater than 4.5 are represented as >4.5, then:

k>4.5, which is option B, because:

k>9/2 = k>4.5

Note: Option A (k≥4.5) means that the line involves 4.5 as part of its domain, which is false as mentioned before.  

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Help help asap please please please
dem82 [27]

Answer:

-54

Step-by-step explanation:

-378 ÷ 7 = -54

(-378 is the altitude)

(7 is the amount of minutes)

Hope this helps!!

Have a great day!!

6 0
3 years ago
NEEEDDD HELPPP PLEEASEEE MATHHHHHH HATESS MEEE!!!!!!
Vladimir [108]
Im not sure but i think the answer is b

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If the correlation coefficient in an ordinary least squares regression = 1.00, then A. all the data points must fall exactly on
Hatshy [7]

Answer: Option A is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

  • The correlation coefficient(r) is a statistical measure that computes the strength of the relationship between two variables.

It lies between -1 and 1.

If the correlation coefficient in an ordinary least squares regression = 1.00.

That indicates that there is a perfect relationship between the variables.

i.e. all the data points must fall exactly on a straight line with a positive slope. .

[when r is positive, the slope of the line is positive].

i.e. option A is correct.

8 0
3 years ago
Customers at a gas station pay with a credit card (A), debit card (B), or cash (C). Assume that successive customers make indepe
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

Mean = 20

Variance = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- Let X be the number of customers paying with a debit card.  X has the binomial distribution with n = 100 trials and success probability p = 0.2  

- In general, if X has the binomial distribution with (n) trials and a success probability of (p) then:

                 P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

                 for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n  

                 P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.

- The probability mass function is derived by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.  

- Or, in other words, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.

                  X ~ Binomial( n = 100 , p = 0.2 )

- The mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 20  

- The variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 16  

7 0
3 years ago
20 points five stars a thank you, dont need to awnser first. i will repeat this question every 3 and a half minutes. ive got nin
melomori [17]

Answer:

Thanks, you are so generous

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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