Answer:
False
Explanation:
In a competitive market, if production (and consumption) continues until the marginal benefit of one more unit equals marginal cost, then total surplus is maximized.
As for any extra unit produced
Marginal Benefit > Marginal cost = Surplus
Marginal Benefit = Marginal cost = No Surplus / No loss
Marginal Benefit > Marginal cost = loss
When your Marginal benefit is maximum and Marginal cost is minimum then the surplus will be maximized.
Most efficient situation in which benefit is maximum and the cost is minimum results in maximized surplus.
When you get hired for a well-paying job, you will most likely view older used cars as<u> inferior goods.</u>
<h3><u /></h3><h3><u>What are inferior goods?</u></h3>
As consumer income rises, customer demand declines for a class of inferior goods. Low-cost alternatives to "normal products," or necessities like food and household supplies, are frequently found in inferior goods. For instance, when someone's wage is cut, they might buy cheaper, poorer things than they would otherwise. When their earnings increases again, they're more likely to buy regular things rather than cheap ones.
The word "inferior" refers to the product's price and perceived worth rather than its quality. The quality may occasionally be inferior to an equivalent standard good, but it may also occasionally be the same. In reality, there are occasions when the only distinctions between regular goods and equal substandard goods are the packaging and price of the goods.
Learn more about inferior goods with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/13377225?referrer=searchResults
#SPJ4
Answer:
4.28 grams
Explanation:
The z score is used to determine by how many standard deviations the raw score is above or below the mean. The z score is given by the formula:
Given that:
P(x > 5.1 grams) = 5%, x = 5.1 grams, σ = 0.5 grams
P(x > 5.1 grams) = 5%
P(x < 5.1 grams) = 100% - 5% = 95%
P(x < 5.1) = 95%
From the normal distribution table, 95% corresponds with a z score of 1.645. Hence:
Answer:
$104,000
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
= Bribe cost per each housing inspector × number of weeks in a year × number of newly built structures each week
= $1,000 × 52 weeks × 2
= $104,000
We simply multiply the three components i.e Bribe cost per each housing inspector, number of weeks in a year, and the number of newly built structures each week so that the accurate value can come.
Answer:
Payback Period = 4 Years
Net Present value = $15692
Internal Rate of Return = 17.82%
Modified Internal Rate of Return = 14.20%
Explanation:
Payback Period = (Initial Investment / Net Cash inflows)
Payback Period = $61500/15000 = 4 Years
Net Present value using PVIF table value at 11% over the period and discount them given cash flows gives us discounted cash flows.
Year CF PVIF 11%,n Discounted CF
0 -61500 1.000 (61,500)
1 15000 0.901 13,514
2 15000 0.812 12,174
3 15000 0.731 10,968
4 15000 0.659 9,881
5 15000 0.593 8,902
6 15000 0.535 8,020
7 15000 0.482 7,225
8 15000 0.434 6,509
Summing up the discounted Cash flows gives us the Net Present value of $15692
Internal Rate of Return:
Using Excel Function IRR @ 17.82% applying it on cash flows gives the rate where Present value of Cash flows is Zero.
Modified Internal Rate of Return:
Modified internal rate of return is at the level of 14.20% as it lower than IRR because it assume positive cash flows invested at cost of capital.
