Step-by-step explanation:
<em>Look at the picture</em>
-80 + 8p - 2z
Terms: -80, 8p, -2z
Coefficients: -80, 8, -2
Answer:
Question 1: B
Question 2: D
Question 3: D
Step-by-step explanation:
+4x-3x-6
group and simplify
(2x-3)(x+2)
Answer:
mean = 1 power failure
variance = 1 (power failure)²
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the mean is computed as
mean = E(x) = ∑ x * p(x) for all x
then for the random variable x=power failures , we have
mean = ∑ x * p(x) = 0 * 0.4 + 1* 0.3 + 2*0.2 + 3* 0.1 = 1 power failure
since the variance can be calculated through
variance = ∑[x-E(x)]² * p(x) for all x
but easily in this way
variance = E(x²) - [E(x)]² , then
E(x²) = ∑ x² * p(x) = 0² * 0.4 + 1²* 0.3 + 2²*0.2 + 3²* 0.1 = 2 power failure²
then
variance = 2 power failure² - (1 power failure)² = 1 power failure²
therefore
mean = 1 power failure
variance = 1 power failure²
1) Start with 4 and add 2 repeatedly
2) Start with 2 and multiply by 2 repeatedly
3) 15, 18, 21
I use a bit of a different looking formula.
A(t)=P(1+r/n)^nt
P=amount of money. (500)
r= rate (in decimal. 4%=0.04)
n=number of times per year (1 in this problem)
t=amount of time. (5 years)
Plugged in it looks like this:
A(t)=500 (1+ 0.04/1)^1x5
Then I put it into my calculator like this:
0.04/1+ 0.04
Then add one to the above answer:
0.04+1=1.04
Then raise the above answer to the 1x5:
1.04^5=1.2166......
Then multiply the above answer by 500:
1.2166.... x 500=608.3264512
She has $608 after 5 years.
Hope this helps, let me know if you have any questions.
