Answer:
5.98 years
Explanation:
The computation of the payback period is shown below:
In year 0 = -$1,530,000
In year 1 = $305,000
In year 2 = $270,000
In year 3 = $240,000
In year 4 = $240,000
In year 5 = $240,000
In year 6 = $240,000
In year 7 = $240,000
In year 8 = $240,000
In year 9 = $240,000
In year 10 = $240,000
If we added the first 5 year cash inflows than it would be $1,295,000
Now we have to subtract the $1,295,000 from the $1,530,000 , so the amount would be $235,000 as if we sum the six year cash inflow so the total amount is exceeded to the initial investment. So, we subtract it
And, the next year cash inflow is $240,000
So, the payback period equal to
= 5 years + $235,000 ÷ $240,000
= 5.98 years
Answer:
The answer is option A)Personal selling refers to: A customer-directed flow of communications, often in a face-to-face encounter, designed to promote a product with the purpose of making a sale.
Explanation:
Personal selling involves a face to face approach encounter with customers. In advertising, Personal selling involves the use of marketers with great interpersonal and sales skills employed to promote a product offering in the field where they can interface one on one with customers for the purpose of generating sales.
This supports the definition of personal selling as a customer-directed flow of communications, often in a face-to-face encounter, designed to promote a product with the purpose of making a sale.
Answer:
See below:
Explanation:
supplies, dividends, accounts payable, accounts receivable, common stock, equipment, accounts payable, cash
the last one is “supplies g” ? I don’t know what this is supposed to be. Supplies was already listed and is on the balance sheet. Supplies expense was also already listed and is not on a balance sheet.
Answer
Retained earnings will be overstated by $38.40 million
Explanation:
The overstatement of retained earnings by this amount arises from the fact that if the depreciation of $64 million had been charged, the charge will have been tax deductible at 40% thus the amount overstated if (1-40%) x $64m =$38.4m.
In a way true, technically it is the copyright law