Answer:
The correct answer is $83230
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
The Present worth of geometric series is shown below
= A *[1 - (1+g)^n /(1+i)^n] / (i-g)
Now,
The present cost of worth from EOY 5 to EOY 13 at EOY 4 = 7000 *[1 - (1+0.12)^9 /(1+0.15)^9] / (0.15-0.12)
Thus,
= 7000 *[1 - (1.12)^9 /(1.15)^9] / (0.03)
Which is,
= 7000 * 7.0572647
= 49400.85
Now, The NPW of all costs = 35000 + 7000*(P/A,15%,4) + 49400.85*(P/F,15%,4)
= 35000 + 7000*2.854978 + 49400.85*0.571753
= 83229.93
Therefore the sound improvement better result in a net present worth profit of how much to negate the costs is $83229.93 or 83230
Note: EOY = End of year.
Answer:
Quality control
Explanation:
Quality control is a system of maintaining quality by periodically testing a sample of the output to ensure that is within the specifications.
Answer: 26.73%
Explanation:
You can calculate the expected return using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
Formula is:
Expected return = Risk free rate + beta * (Market return - risk free rate)
Use the previous figures to solve for the risk free rate:
20.47% = Rf + 1.39 * (16.50% - Rf)
20.47% = Rf + 22.935% - 1.39R
20.47% - 22.935% = Rf - 1.39Rf
-2.465% = -0.39Rf
Rf = -2.465% / -0.39
= 6.32%
New expected return is:
= 6.32% + 1.39 * (21% - 6.32%)
= 26.73%
I believe the answer would be Intranet, but I am not 100% sure.
The allowance method of recognizing uncollectible accounts used is one where there is no effect on net income.
<h3>What is the allowance method?</h3>
This is known as a method that entails the use of or the act of setting aside a kind of reserve for bad debts that are seen or foretell to take place in the future.
The reserve is one that is based on a percentage of the sales gotten in a reporting period, in terms of those adjusted for the risk linked with some customers.
Learn more about allowance method from
brainly.com/question/6993526