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4 years ago

Which question is best modeled with a division expression

Mathematics

2 answers:

STatiana [176]4 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Quotient is the answer of a division expression.

Could you mark brainliest sorry that if I bother you by asking.

Lina20 [59]4 years ago

7 0

Answer:Your answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

I took the quiz.

hope this helps. :D

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A company produces steel rods. The lengths of the steel rods are normally distributed with a mean of 108.7-cm and a standard dev

Luden [163]

Let x be the lengths of the steel rods and X ~ N (108.7, 0.6)

To get the probability of less than 109.1 cm, the solution is computed by:

z (109.1) = (X-mean)/standard dev

= 109.1 – 108/ 0.6

= 1.1/0.6

=1.83333, look this up in the z table.

P(x < 109.1) = P(z < 1.8333) = 0.97 or 97%

3 0

4 years ago

If the nth term of an A.P. is 3n+2, find the sum of first 'n terms of that AP.

alexdok [17]

Answer:

$S_{n}$ = $\frac{n}{2}$ (3n + 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

We require to find the first term a₁ and the common difference d

The n th term is given by 3n + 2, thus

a₁ = 3(1) + 2 = 3 + 2 = 5

a₂ = 3(2) + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8

d = 8 - 5 = 3

$S_{n}$ = $\frac{n}{2}$ [ 2a₁ + (n - 1)d ], substitute values

$S_{n}$ = $\frac{n}{2}$ [ (2 × 5) + 3(n - 1) ] = $\frac{n}{2}$ (10 + 3n - 3) = $\frac{n}{2}$ (3n + 7)

6 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the answer to this

dimaraw [331]

Answer:

No each price is different

Step-by-step explanation:

4/20 gives you $5 a piece

6/37.50 gives you $6.25 per wand

10/65 gives you 6.50 per wand

5 0

4 years ago

4(x-2)-3=9 I have to solve for X but I'm confused

ExtremeBDS [4]

You distribute the 4 to the x and the -2. So the left side of the equation would look like 4x-8-3=9. Add 3 to both sides to get 4x-8=12. Add 8 to both sides and get 4x=20. Divide both sides by 4 and x =5

6 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Would appreciate the help !

aleksandr82 [10.1K]

This is one pathway to prove the identity.

Part 1

$\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\frac{1}{\tan(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\cot(\theta) = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\frac{\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)*\sin(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}-\frac{\cos(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\$

Part 2

$\frac{\sin^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}-\frac{\cos(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-(\cos(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta))}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\$

Part 3

$\frac{\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)-\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{1-\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{1}{\sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)} \ \ {\checkmark}\\\\$

As the steps above show, the goal is to get both sides be the same identical expression. You should only work with one side to transform it into the other. In this case, the left side transforms while the right side stays fixed the entire time. The general rule is that you should convert the more complicated expression into a simpler form.

We use other previously established or proven trig identities to work through the steps. For example, I used the pythagorean identity $\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta) = 1$ in the second to last step. I broke the steps into three parts to hopefully make it more manageable.

3 0

3 years ago