All categories

3 years ago

A rectangle has a height of 2x^4 and a width of

Mathematics

2 answers:

valentina_108 [34]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

2x^6+16x^5+30x^4

Step-by-step explanation:

Bezzdna [24]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

Janet's recipe calls for 6/8 cup of milk. what is this fraction in simplest form?

insens350 [35]

You can easily simpligy this fraction by taking a 2 out of the top and bottom of it.

6/2=3
8/2=4

Your answer is 3/4

I hope this helps!

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Sally’s dance school had 60 students last year. This year there are only 48 students enrolled. By what percent did the enrollmen

Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

-20%

My brain is weird on how i figure it out but I divided 48 by 60 and got .80 so i just got the other whole to make it 1 so it is 20%. This is not the correct way to do this but this is how i got my answer.

8 0

3 years ago

HELP TRUE OR FALSE 25 POINTS!!

ahrayia [7]

False - A is not a ray

6 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Write the trigonometric expression in terms of sine and cosine, and then simplify. cot()/sin()-csc()

OLEGan [10]

Answer:

First, we know that:

cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x)

csc(x) = 1/sin(x)

I can't know for sure what is the exact equation, so I will assume two cases.

The first case is if the equation is:

$\frac{cot(x)}{sin(x)} - csc(x)$

if we replace cot(x) and csc(x) we get:

$\frac{cot(x)}{sin(x)} - csc(x) = \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)} \frac{1}{sin(x)} - \frac{1}{sin(x)}$

Now let's we can rewrite this as:

$\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)} \frac{1}{sin(x)} - \frac{1}{sin(x)} =\frac{cos(x)}{sin^2(x)} - \frac{1}{sin(x)}$

$\frac{cos(x)}{sin^2(x)} - \frac{sin(x)}{sin^2(x)} = \frac{cos(x) - sin(x)}{sin^2(x)}$

We can't simplify it more.

Second case:

If the initial equation was

$\frac{cot(x)}{sin(x) - csc(x)}$

Then if we replace cot(x) and csc(x)

$\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}*\frac{1}{sin(x) - 1/sin(x)} = \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}*\frac{1}{sin^2(x)/sin(x) - 1/sin(x)}$

This is equal to:

$\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}*\frac{sin(x)}{sin^2(x) - 1}$

And we know that:

sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1

Then:

sin^2(x) - 1 = -cos^2(x)

So we can replace that in our equation:

$\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}*\frac{sin(x)}{sin^2(x) - 1} = \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}*\frac{sin(x)}{-cos^2(x)} = -\frac{cos(x)}{cos^2(x)}*\frac{sin(x)}{sin(x)} = - \frac{1}{cos(x)}$

5 0

3 years ago

A diamond can be classified as either gem-quality or industrial-grade. 80% of diamonds are classified as industrial-grade.

mote1985 [20]

Answer:

a) 0.64

b) 0.21

c) 0.79

Step-by-step explanation:

Percentage of industrial-grade diamonds = 80%

This means, if one diamond is chosen at random, there is 80% chance that it will be of industrial-grade. So,

P(Industrial grade) = 80% = 0.80

Part a)

Probability that 1st diamond is industrial-grade = 0.80

Since, selection of diamonds in independent, the probability that 2nd diamond is also industrial grade = 0.80

The overall probability of both diamonds being industrial-grade will be the product of their individual probabilities, according to the fundamental rule of counting.

So, if two diamonds are chosen at random, the probability that both are industrial grade = 0.80 x 0.80 = (0.80)² = 0.64

Part b)

Following the same logic as we followed in the previous part.

The probability of each of the 7 diamonds being industrial-grade is 0.80, so the probability that all 7 are industrial grade will be:

Probability = 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 x 0.80 = $(0.80)^{7}$ = 0.21

So, if 7 diamonds are chosen at random, the probability that all 7 are industrial grade is 0.21.

Part c)

The event "at least one" is complement of event "none". So, the event "at least one of 7" will be complement of "none of the 7"

If none of the selected diamonds is gem quality, this means all 7 of the diamonds are industrial-grade. So,

The probability that none of the diamonds is gem-quality = The probability that all 7 are industrial-grade = 0.21

So,

The probability that at least one of the 7 selected diamonds is gem-quality = 1 - Probability that none is gem-quality

= 1 - 0.21

= 0.79

Since the probability that atleast one of the 7 randomly selected diamonds is gem-quality is greater than 0.05, it won't be unusual event.

3 0

4 years ago