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Murrr4er [49]
3 years ago
8

The Corporation applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $14 per machine

-hour. What amount wou
Business
1 answer:
yuradex [85]3 years ago
8 0

Question

The question is incomplete, hence the tutor added a piece of information

The Corporation applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $14 per machine-hour. What amount would be

Assuming the actual machine hours worked is 3,500

<em>Note the actual machine was added by the tutor</em>

Answer:

Applied overhead =$49,000

Explanation:

<em>Overheads are charged to units produced by the means of an estimated overhead absorption rate. This rate is computed using budgeted overhead and budgeted activity level.  </em>

<em>Pre-determined overhead absorption rate (POAR) = Budgeted overhead/Budgeted machine hours</em>

The POAR is given as $14 per machine hour

Applied (absorbed) overhead = POAR × Actual machine hours

Applied overhead = $14 ×  3,500 =$49000

Applied overhead =$49,000

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Lem Co., which accounts for treasury stock under the par value method, acquired 100 shares of its $6 par value common stock for
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Answer:

Additional paid in capital decrease by 100 as a result of the acquisition

Explanation:

Treasury Stock 600 (100 shares x $6)

Additional Paid-In Capital 100 (100 shares x $1)

cash 1,000 (100 shares x $10)

Additional Paid-In Treasury Stock 300

7 0
3 years ago
Western Inc. purchases a machine for $70,000. This machine qualifies as a five-year recovery asset under MACRS with the fixed de
Ne4ueva [31]

Western Inc. purchases a machine for $70,000. This machine qualifies as a five-year recovery asset under MACRS with the fixed depreciation percentages- <u>the cash flow from disposal is $46720</u>

Explanation:

Given that  the four-year sale is at $50,000.

we know that the book value of the machine must be established in order to determine if a gain or loss has been incurred at disposal.

The depreciation schedule for the $70,000 machine is: given as

Year 1: $70,000 &times; 0.2000 = $14,000

Year 2: $70,000 &times; 0.3200 = $22,400

<u>Accumulated Depreciation </u>= $14,000 + $22,400 = $36,400

<u>Book Value of machine </u>= $70,000 - $36,400 = $33,600

<u>Gain on disposal is</u> $50,000 - $33,600 = $16,400

Tax on Gain = Gain on disposal &times; Tax rate = $16,400 &

times; 0.20 = 20% of $16,400=20/100*16400=3,280

<u>After-Tax Cash Flow at disposal</u> = $50,000 - $3,280 = $46,720

8 0
3 years ago
In general terms, how would a change in investment opportunities affect the payout ratio under the residual payment policy?
adell [148]

Companies with residual dividend policies priorities paying capital expenditures out of earnings.

<h3>What is payout ratio?</h3>

The payout ratio, which is calculated as a percentage of the firm's total earnings, demonstrates the part of earnings that a company distributes to its shareholders in the form of dividends. By dividing the total dividends given out by the net income made, the computation is arrived at.

For dividend investors, the dividend payout ratio is a crucial indicator. It demonstrates how much of a company's earnings are distributed to investors. The higher that number, the less cash a corporation has left over to fund dividend growth and corporate expansion.

Companies with residual dividend policies priorities paying capital expenditures out of earnings. Any unused revenues are then used to pay dividends. Long-term debt and equity are often both parts of a company's capital structure.

To learn more about payout ratio refer to:

brainly.com/question/13083753

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6 0
1 year ago
On January 1, a company issued and sold a $440,000, 6%, 10-year bond payable, and received proceeds of $434,000. Interest is pay
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is $434,300.

Explanation:

Face value of the bond = $440,000

Proceeds from bond issue = $434,000

Discount on bond payable = Face value of the bond - Proceeds from bond issue = $440,000 - $434,000 = $6,000

Total number of seminual = Number of years of bond maturity * Number of semiannual in a year = 10 * 2 = 20

Discount amortizaton per semiannual = Discount on bond payable / Total number of seminual = $6,000 / 20 = $300

Carrying value after first interest payment = Proceeds from bond issue + Discount amortizaton per semiannual = $434,000 + $300 = $434,300

Therefore, the carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is $434,300.

3 0
2 years ago
Karen Wilson and Katie Smith are looking at the company's health care options and trying to determine how much their net pay wil
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

Without cafeteria plan Karen taxable income is 2250 dollars and with cafeteria plan the taxable income is $2135.

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Explanation:

A married women Karen earns = $2250

Katie single women earn = $2075

Employee contribution to health care = $115

If the Karen decline to participate in the cafeteria then her taxable income is $2250 (wages).

If the Karen accept to participate in the cafeteria then her taxable income is $2250 - $115 (contribution) = $2135

If Katie declined to participate in the cafeteria then her taxable income is $2075 (wages).

If Katie accept to participate in the cafeteria then her taxable income is $2075 - $115 (contribution) = $1960

7 0
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