Answer:
The value of the stock today is $20
Explanation:
Using the CAPM equation, we first calculate the required rate of retunr on the stock.
The equation for CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
- rRF is the risk free rate
- rpM is the risk premium on market
- Beta * rpM is the risk premium on stock
r = 0.05 + 0.04
r = 0.09 or 9%
The value of the stock can be calculated using the zero growth model of DDM. The DDM values the stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. As the dividend from the stock is expected to remain constant through out to an indefinite period, the value of the stock today is,
P0 = Dividend / r
P0 = 1.8 / 0.09
P0 = $20
Answer: S-1
Explanation:
According to the the securities and exchange commissions, the S-1 is the registration under the SEC act of 1933. Whereby a company file form S-1 in anticipation of IPO (initial public offering).The company must be small reporting company with $25 million of annual revenues and of $25 million of voting securities held by non-affiliates.
The answer is option B. The main challenge of career planning in changing times is that you need to revise your plans often.
The world we live in is dynamic. New inventions, new technology, new methods of doing things always come up with time.
Because of this, when making a career plan, one must be fully aware that the process is not static. That is, changes would occur and as such, you have to revise your plans often so that it is in line with what is obtainable at the time.
<em>Read more on career planning here: brainly.com/question/6457203?referrer=searchResults</em>
Answer:
The low-attendance day falls on an autumn Wednesday, while the high-attendance day falls on a summer Saturday.
Explanation:
There are no rare class of goods which do not follow the Law of Demand
The most probable reason may be the dates are at different time period, when the demand is lower and therefore the price must be lower to generate enought attendance to make it profitable. While, the second date is onpeak demand.
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
