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krok68 [10]
3 years ago
6

Mike has a linear production possibilities frontier that shows maximum production of trucks or computers of 10 million each. Deb

ra also has a linear production possibilities curve that shows maximum production of 9 million trucks or 3 million computers.
Based on the graphs, which of the following statements is true?

Debra has an absolute advantage in the production of computers.
Debra has an absolute advantage in the production of trucks.
Debra has an absolute advantage in the production of computers.
Mike has a comparative advantage in the production of computers.
Business
1 answer:
user100 [1]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Mike has a comparative advantage in the production of computers.

Explanation:

Mike's opportunity cost of producing trucks instead of computers = 10 / 10 = 1.

Mike's opportunity cost of producing computers instead of trucks is 10 / 10 = 1.

Debra's opportunity cost of producing trucks instead of computers = 3 / 9 = 0.333.

Debra's opportunity cost of producing computers instead of trucks = 9 / 3 = 3.

Mike's opportunity cost of producing computers instead of trucks is 1, while Debra's is 3. Therefore, Mike has a comparative advantage in the production of computers.

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In the event of death, this insurance covers the entrepreneur's business and helps family face the financial challenges.
allsm [11]

Answer:

a

Life

Explanation:

Life insurance is a contract where the insurance company undertakes to pay the amount stated in the policy document upon the insured's death. The insured, in turn, pays periodic insurance premiums to keep the contract in force.

Life insurance renders financial protection to the family and the insured upon their death. For an entrepreneur, the insurance company will compensate their family for the loss of income occasioned by their death.

8 0
3 years ago
You've lost a lawsuit that requires you to pay $1,500 per month for 120 months starting next month. How much would you have to i
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

PV = $155,343

Explanation:

This question requires application of PV of annuity, according to which:

PV = p [1-(1+r)^-n/r]

P= Periodic Payment

r = rate of period

n = number of periods

r = 3%/12 = 0.25% (monthly), n = 120, P = $1500

PV = 1500 * [\frac{1 - (1 + 0.0025)^{-120}}{0.0025}]

PV = 1500 * 103.5618

PV = $155,343

6 0
3 years ago
Exhibit 4.1 The balance sheet and income statement shown below are for Koski Inc. Note that the firm has no amortization charges
yuradex [85]

Answer:

Koski Inc.

Quick Ratio:

Quick Ratio = (Current Assets - Inventory) divided by Current Liabilities

Quick Ratio = $(23,595 - 12,480) / $(17,160 -5,460)

Quick Ratio = 11,115 / 11,700 = 0.95

Explanation:

The quick ratio is a financial metric that shows the short-term liquidity position of a company.  It measures the company's ability to settle its short-term obligations using its most liquid current assets.  The most liquid assets are cash and near cash current assets.

Inventory is always removed in calculating the most liquid current assets.  Inventory will take some time before it can be converted to cash or near cash, given the cash conversion cycle.

The quick ratio is also called the acid-test ratio.  It is also considered as more conservative than the current ratio which measures the coverage of current liabilities by all current assets, including inventory.

In our workings, we eliminated inventory from current assets.  We also eliminated notes payable which would be rolled over the next year.

4 0
3 years ago
A video-recording system was purchased 4 years ago at a cost of $37,000. A 5-year recovery period and DDB (Double Declining Bala
AysviL [449]

Answer:

The trade in value is higher than the book value by $ 205

Explanation:

Computation of Book value

In a double declining balance method of depreciation, the rate of depreciation is double the straight line rate and is depreciated on a declining balance.

Cost of Equipment                                                                            $ 37,000

Estimated useful life ( Recovery Period)                                             5 years

Straight Line Depreciation rate                                                            20 %

Double declining Method depreciation  rate                                      40 %

Cost                                                                                                     $ 37,000

Depreciation for year 1   at 40 %                                                        <u>$(14,800)</u>

Depreciable basis for year 2                                                              $ 22,200

Depreciation for year 2   at40 %                                                       <u>$ ( 8,880)</u>

Depreciable basis for year 3                                                              $  13,320

Depreciation for year 3   at 40 %                                                        <u>$ (5,328)</u>

Depreciable basis for year 4                                                               $   7,992

Depreciation for year 4   at 40 %                                                        <u>$    3,197) </u>

Depreciable basis for year 5                                                                $  4,795

The depreciable basis for year 5 is the net book value after 4 years

The trade value is                                                                                  $ 5,000

The trade in value is higher by                                                             $     205

8 0
4 years ago
Young Co. issues $800,000 of 10% bonds dated January 1, Year 1. Interest is payable semiannually on June 30 and December 31. The
Andreyy89

Answer:

Young should report proceeds from the sale of bonds as equal to $864,884

Explanation:

The proceeds on the sale of bonds is equivalent to the present value of all the cash flows that are likely to accrue to an investor once the bond is bought. These cash-flows are the periodic coupon payments that are paid semi-annually and the par value of the bond that will be paid at the end of the 5 years.

During the 5 years, there are 10 equal periodic coupon payments that will be made. In each  year, the total coupon paid will be

$800,000*0.1=$80,000

and this payment will be split into two equal payments equal to \frac{$80,000}{2} = $40,000 . This stream of cash-flows is an ordinary annuity

The periodic market rate is equal to \frac{0.08}{2}=0.04

The  PV of the cashflows = PV of the coupon payments + PV of the par value of the bond

=$40,000*PV Annuity Factor for 10 periods at 4%+ $800,000*\frac{1}{(1+0.04)^10}

=$40,000*8.1109+$800,000*0.67556=$864,884

4 0
3 years ago
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