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viva [34]
3 years ago
8

If the cpi is 200 in year 1980 and 300 today, then $600 in 1980 is equivalent to ______ today.

Business
1 answer:
rodikova [14]3 years ago
8 0
If the cpi is 200 in year 1980 and 300 today, then $600 in 1980 is equivalent to $900 today.
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Using the information below for Singing Dolls, Inc., determine cost of goods manufactured for the year: Work in Process, January
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

The correct answer would be option E, $57,500.

Explanation:

Total manufacturing cost

= direct materials + direct labor + factory overhead + beginning work in process inventory - ending goods in process inventory.

Work in process Jan 1, $50,000;  

Work in process Dec 31, $37,000;  

total factory overhead, $5,500;  

direct materials used, $12,500;  

direct labor used, $26,500

Now substituting the values in the above formula we get:

Total Cost of Goods Manufactured=

50000 + 55000 + 5500 + 12500 + 26500 - 37000

= 94500 - 37000

= $57500

So The cost of goods manufactured during the year will be option E, $57500

5 0
3 years ago
Presented below are various account balances of K.D. Lang Inc.
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

a. Contra Liability and expense account

b. Long-term liability

c. Long-term and current liability

d. current liability

e. Long-term liability

f. Current asset

g. Current liability

h. current liability

i. current liability

Explanation:

Req. A, B and C

<em>A.</em> Contra liability is a credit liability account for that has an explicit debit liability account. In that case, unamortized premium on bonds payable is a liability for which there is a premium, which is a debit liability. $3,000 is an expense, so it is an expense account.

<em>B.</em> Since the current year is 2017 and the maturity date is 2021, it is a long-term liability.

<em>C.</em> As $200,000 will be matured at the end of the year, it is a current liability. $800,000 is a long-term liability.

Req. D, E and F

<em>D.</em> Due to income tax purpose, employees' wages will be withhold for a specific time, it is a current liability.

<em>E(1,2).</em> Since the notes payable will be matured in 2020, it is a long-term liability.  (as operating cycle is more than one year, it is a long-term liability. Whatever assets are used, they are long-term liabilities.

<em>F.</em> Accounts receivable is a current asset account. Therefore, if the balance is credit due to returns, it will not change the account.

Req. G, H and I

G. Since the bonds payable is matured at the end of this period, the entire amount will be current liability.

H. Bank Overdraft is a current liability account whatever the scenario pretends.

I. Since customers paid and goods have not been provided to them, it is a liability for the company. As it is related to products, it is a current liability.

6 0
4 years ago
A characteristic of the market system is:A. Extensive use of direct methods of productionB. A focus on labor, as opposed to capi
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer: Option C

Explanation: In a market system, the suppliers are willing to produce those goods that have value to the consumers directly or indirectly. The focus is on maximizing output for achieving the economies of scale so that goods could be sold at a lower price, thus, increasing the sales.

Hence,the suppliers in case of market system use more of capital goods as they produce more output and relatively shortens the cost per piece.

Thus, the correct option is C.

5 0
3 years ago
HELP PLZ NO DOWNLOADS OR LINKS IT WILL BE REPORTED AND ANY UNHELPFUL ANSWERS
pochemuha

far left = top left

middle left = top right

left middle = bottom right

far left = bottom left

6 0
3 years ago
Floyd Industries stock has a beta of 1.20. The company just paid a dividend of $.50, and the dividends are expected to grow at 6
djyliett [7]

Answer:

a.

r = 0.06697 or 6.697% rounded off to 6.70%

b.

r = 0.1202 or 12.02%

Explanation:

a.

Using the constant growth model of dividend discount model, we can calculate the price of the stock today. The DDM values a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under this model is,

P0 = D0 * (1+g) / (r - g)

Where,

  • D0 * (1+g) is dividend expected for the next period /year
  • g is the growth rate
  • r is the required rate of return or cost of equity

Plugging in the values for P0, D0 and g in the formula, we can calculate the value of r to be,

76 = 0.5 * (1+0.06) / (r - 0.06)

76 * (r - 0.06) = 0.53

76r - 4.56 = 0.53

76r = 0.53 + 4.56

r = 5.09 / 76

r = 0.06697 or 6.697% rounded off to 6.70%

.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required/expected rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.  

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rM is the market return

r = 0.059 + 1.2 * (0.11 - 0.059)

r = 0.1202 or 12.02%

7 0
3 years ago
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