Answer:
$26,000 adverse variance
Explanation:
Fixed Overheads Volume Variance = Budgeted Overheads at Actual Output - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= $1.30 x 60,000 hours - $1.30 x 80,000
= $78,000 - $104,000
= $26,000 adverse variance
The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $26,000 adverse variance
Answer: None of the above
Explanation:
All of the above are correct.
For option A, Economists who advocate discretionary monetary policy do indeed believe that the monetary authority using this policy is more flexible to shape the best monetary policy to the existing circumstances.
Option B is also correct because Crowding out occurs when the government increases investment by borrowing which leaves less money for the private sector to borrow so they spend less. The government spent money here yet the private sector did not spend less so it is Zero Crowing out.
Option C by option B's explanation holds true because the entire amount the Government increased by was denied the private sector.
Option D is also true as not all Economists prefer rule-based monetary policy to discretionary monetary policy.
They are all true.
Answer:
Financial disadvantage from further processing = $(9)
Explanation:
<em>A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost. </em>
<em>Also note that all cost incurred up to the split-off point (the cost of crushing) are irrelevant to the decision to process further . </em>
$
Sales revenue after crushing 55
Sales revenue at the split-off point <u>81</u>
Additional sales revenue 26
Further processing cost <u> (35)</u>
Net income after further processing <u> (9)
</u>
Financial disadvantage from further processing = $(9)
<em>Kindly note that the allocated joint costs( cost of sugar and crushing) are irrelevant. This implies that whether or not the intermediate products are processed further the joint costs are irrelevant to the decision to process the beet juice further</em>.
Answer: I honestly have no idea im just stupid and i need points so yea im sry bye
Explanation:
Answer:
5000 partial depreciation
Explanation:
straight line formula is = <u>cost - scrape value</u>
useful life in years
since there is no residual value (scrape value) therefore, we divide <u>100,000 </u>
5
the answer we get 20000 per year depreciation. but the equipment is bought on 1st oct, and if assume that the year ends on Dec, 31 so it is measure for 3 month depreciation which is 5000.
