Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
The selling price per unit less the variable cost per unit is the contribution margin per unit.
<h3>What is the contribution margin per unit.?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the selling price that was used for the sale of a particular good minus the variable cost that was employed in the production of that particular good. It is the contribution that is made towards the payment of the fixed costs.
Hence we can say that The selling price per unit less the variable cost per unit is the contribution margin per unit.
Read more on contribution margin per unit here: brainly.com/question/13528647
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Answer: Return the car and pay for the damage(D)
Explanation:
To disaffirm a contract means to avoid the obligations in a contract. A contract can be disaffirmed by a minor when he shows an intent that he or she isn't bound by it. Contracts can be disaffirmed by minors before they reach eighteen years. When a minor disaffirms a contract, all properties transferred to the minor can be gotten back.
In the scenario explained in the question, even though Eddie had damaged the car, he can disaffirm the contract and satisfy his duty if restitution by returning the car and paying for damage.
Answer:
We have to discount these payments to find the present value
500,000
500,000/1.1
500,000/1.1^2
500,000/1.1^3
We keep on doing this until we reach 500,000/1.1^19
After that we add all the payments and get the value. A less time consuming way of doing it is using a financial calculator
Pv=?
N=19
FV=0
PMT=500,000
=4,182,460.05 we add 500,000 to this because the first payment was not discounted=4,682,460.05= Present Value.
Explanation:
Answer:
Diverstiture or Selling assets from another division to pay for Bryan Food
Explanation:
Divestiture
This is the process of disposing a company's business unit or assets through bankruptcy, closure, exchange or sale for different purposes.
Reasons for DIvestiture
1. To sell off redundant business units - business units that are not being used or not generating income but are incurring expenses can be sold off to get some gains.
2. To generate funds - Selling a business unit for cash is a source of income. This is the choice or last resort of Sara Lee to acquire Bryan Foods
3. To ensure business survival or stability- Can be an option to declaring complete bankruptcy or closing off business completely
4. To increase resale value- Selling individual unit assets of a business is more profitable than selling the organisation assets en-mass or as a whole piece
Sara Lee Corporation and Bryan Foods
Sara Lee already has a variety of industries, apparently from these variety there are those ones that after much consideration could be redundant units or a not generating as much income or profit as expected.
Because Bryan Foods represents 'a tremedous' opportunity, with the potential to make Sara Lee more successful, the last resort is to pick assets or business units in Sara Lee that may be redundant or potentially generate less than Bryan Foods will and sell them in order to acquire Bryan Foods.
This is the last resort for Sara Lee.
