Answer:
a-Dec-31. Dr Utility expense 485
Cr Utility bills payable 485
b-Jan-11. Dr Utility bills payable 485
Cr Cash 485
c-Dec-31. Dr Salary expense 3990
Cr Salary payable 3990
d-Dec-31. Dr bank 51600
Cr Loan payable 51600
e-Dec-31 Dr Interest expense 215
Cr interest payable 215
f-Dec-31 Dr Account receivable 340
Cr Service revenue account 340
g-Dec-31. Dr Cash 6840
Cr Advance Rent 6840
Explanation:
a-Utility expense incurred for the m/o Dec will be paid in Jan.
c- Salaries of 3990 will be paid on Jan of 4 days.
e-Interest expense for the m/o Dec will be (51600*5%=2580/12=215.
f-The service fee is receivable which will be paid on Jan.
g- Advance rent is received from client.
In measuring an impairment loss for a financial asset under U.S. GAAP and under IFRS, the carrying value of the financial asset would be compared to:
under U.S. GAAP Fair value and under IFRS recoverable amount.
Explanation:
In US GAAP, the cost of financial asset depreciation is calculated as the difference between carried value and fair value; in compliance with IFRS, a loss of financial asset impairment is defined as the difference between carrying value and the percentage of the asset that can be recouped.
In compliance with US-based ASC 360-10-35-20. The recovery of a historically identified impairment loss (or "restoration") is forbidden because an item is deemed to have a new cost base after an impairment loss has been registered.
Answer:
a. Project Low because its expected rate of return is higher than its WACC
Explanation:
Weighted Average Cost of Capital WACC determines firms cost of capital. It includes all sources of finance which are included in firm capital structure. The expected rate of return is the rate at which a project is able to generate return or benefits. For any project to be beneficial, its expected return should be higher than its WACC. We will select project Low because its expected rate of return is higher than its WACC.
Use the formula of the present value of an annuity ordinary which is
Pv=pmt [(1-(1+r/k)^(-kn))÷(r/k)]
Pv present value 85000
PMT monthly payment?
R interest rate 0.05
K compounded monthly 12
N time 10 years
Solve the formula for PMT
PMT=Pv÷[(1-(1+r/k)^(-kn))÷(r/k)]
PMT=85,000÷((1−(1+0.05÷12)^(
−12×10))÷(0.05÷12))
=901.55 round to the nearest tenth to get 900
Hope it helps!