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-Dominant- [34]
3 years ago
10

Virginia Supply offers their customers trade credit with terms 2/15, net 30. This implies that: Virginia's customers have very l

ittle incentive to pay within the discount period. paying within 30 days will let a customer deduct 15% off the invoice price. the annual financing cost of failing to pay within 15 days is about 48%. most customers will pay their bill within 2 days in order to take the maximum discount.
Business
1 answer:
tamaranim1 [39]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is given below;

Explanation:

This implies that 2%discount will be allowed if the customer pays within 15 days, otherwise normal credit period of the firm is 30 days.

From the given option, the closest choice is; Virginia's customers have very little incentive (i.e 2% discount) to pay within the discount period (which is 15 days).

Therefore the customers will not pay within 15 days just for 2% discount as normal credit period is 30 days.

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Adjusting Entries Journalize the adjusting entry needed at December 31 for each situation. Record debits first, then credits. Ch
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Answer:

Date       Accounts Titles                Debit         Credit

Dec-31    Salaries expense              $2,300  

                     Salaries payable                         $2,300

Dec-31    Depreciation expense     $200

               (Furniture )

                      Accumulated depreciation        $200

                       (Furniture)

Dec-31    Insurance expense          $450

                       Prepaid Insurance                   $450

Dec-31    Supplies expense             $80

                        Supplies                                   $80

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2 years ago
Vocational education is one path to a career
balu736 [363]

Answer:

It's true I think if I'm wrong do tell me.

5 0
2 years ago
The Alpha Beta Corporation disposes a capital asset with an original cost of​ $170,000 and accumulated depreciation of​ $109,000
Bingel [31]

Answer:

Option D) $54.400

Explanation:

When  a company disposes a capital asset, the cost of the asset it's the remanent value, that is the difference between the original cost less the accumulated depreciation, in this case $170.000 minus $109.000, remanent value is $61.000.

This value it's the cost of sale and the price it's $50.000 , the result of this transaction it's a loss of ($11.000) so the after-tax cash inflow it's ($4.400).

The total Cash Inflow it's the sum of $50.000 (gained from the sale) and the save on taxes for $4.400, because of the loss I get a payback on taxes, the total is $54.400.

8 0
3 years ago
Faith age 42, orally agreed to work for Trinity, Inc. for the rest of her life for $50,000 per year. This agreement would not be
Paraphin [41]

Answer: False

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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Kay [80]

Answer:

0.95 and 1.06

Explanation:

The computation of the present value index is shown below:

Present value index = Present Value of net cash Flow ÷ Amount invested

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Total present value of

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