Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a. Marpor's value without leverage is
But before that first we have to calculate the required rate of return which is
The Required rate of return = Risk Free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium
= 5% + 1.1 × (15% - 5%)
= 16%
Now without leverage is
= Free cash flows generates ÷ required rate of return
= $16,000,000 ÷ 16%
= $100,000,000
b. And, with the new leverage is
= (Free cash flows with debt ÷ required rate of return) + (Tax rate × increase of debt)
= ($15,000,000 ÷ 0.16) + (0.35 × $40,000,000)
= $93,750,000 + $14,000,000
= $107,750,000
Answer:
Option A is correct one.
<u>Managing & Franchising s asset turnover ratio at 17.6% suggests inefficiency when compared to Hotel Ownership</u>
Explanation:
The ratio of the operating return on sales for hotel ownership is:
474/1886 = 0.25
The asset turn-over for hotel ownership is :
1886/492.5 = 0.38 = 38%
Now, for managing and franchising :
The ratios are:
Operating return to sales = 113/ 120 = 0.94
Asset Turnover = 120/680 = 0.1765 = 17.65%.
Answer: More people can come to work and do their job, but also management can work together, if they come together then they can sale more things and both of their business can go up.
Explanation: I say this because, not all companies work together because their always trying to go against each other and instead of helping one an other be great together.
Answer:
<h2>Under diseconomies of scale,firms experience decreasing returns to scale.Hence,the answer would be option B. or output will increase but less than double.</h2>
Explanation:
- Diseconomies of scale is characterized as a situation in production where any firm experiences increase in the average cost of production as the output or production level expands.
- Diseconomies of scale can occur when the productive resources of the factors/inputs of production looses their productive efficiency in the production process and is not able to generate proportionate or higher production level or output.
- As a result,the output or production level obtained by employing a certain level of factor inputs or productive resources is usually less than the amount or proportion of those factor inputs or resources.
- In other words,due to lower productive capacity or efficiency the productive resources or factors inputs are not able to manufacture or generate proportionate or higher levels of output and hence,the firms end up investing more on these resources or inputs but do not obtain proportionately expected output level.
Answer:
MIRR -16.50%
They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.
A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR
If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.
Explanation:
WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%
<em>Cash inflow:</em>
Year 1 275000 336,886.825
Year 3 450000 481500
Year 4 450000 450000
Total 1,268,386.825
<em>Cash outflow:</em>
F= -2,500,000
Year 2 -125000 - 109, 179.841
Total 2,609,179.841
Now we can solve for MIRR:
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{FV \: inflow}{PV \: outflow}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7BFV%20%5C%3A%20inflow%7D%7BPV%20%5C%3A%20outflow%7D%7D%20-1)
![MIRR = \sqrt[4]{\frac{1,268,386.82}{2,609,179.84}} -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C268%2C386.82%7D%7B2%2C609%2C179.84%7D%7D%20-1)
MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%
