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Contact [7]
4 years ago
13

Explain why postsynaptic potentials are transient (i.e. short lived). In other words, what terminates the action of the neurotra

nsmitter on the postsynaptic cell?
Biology
1 answer:
REY [17]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: The action of a neurotransmitter at the postsynaptic cell is terminated by the following: enzymatic degradation, diffusion or reuptake into the presynaptic cell by specific transporters.

Explanation: After a neurotransmitter has bound to its receptor on the postsynaptic membrane and triggered a biological response, in order to avoid over stimulation of the receptors, the neurotransmitter is either degraded by specific enzymes or taken back to the presynaptic cell into the synaptic vesicles by action of specific transporters. This mechanism is to maintain a balance (homeostasis).

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3 years ago
Although the total distance the impulse travels in the reflex arc is less than 3
Neko [114]

Although the total distance the impulse travels in the reflex arc is less than 3 meters. the time taken is more than 0.04 seconds and the time taken is more than expected because of Synapses or due to gaps between neurons.

Diagram displays the whole reflex arcs from the tip of the finger to the spinal cord and then back out to a closer muscle, possibly in the forearm or the arm. Because the signal doesn't have to go all the way back to the finger, the total distance is less than 3 meters. Considering that it just travels back a portion of the way, less than 3 meters, it takes. Let's see, it takes more than twice as long, therefore the query makes us think about why the delay. Where is the hold-up what is happening there, and the key to this is that the gray matter of the spinal cord doesn't truly contain mylin, despite the fact that we said it- accelerates electrical conduction through the axon in the nerves of the extremities. Mylin has a whitish color, which contributes to the white matter's appearance of whitishness. Thus, the electrical signal becomes slower.

To know morw about reflex visit: brainly.com/question/6023003

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6 0
2 years ago
Why is there no such thing as being a “carrier” of an autosomal dominant disorder?
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If it’s a dominant disorder it will always show up no matter what. So because of that you can’t be a “carrier” because to be a carrier it must be a recessive gene that doesn’t show up
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