True , True , True , True , True
Answer:
A). The demand curve looked by the flawlessly serious firms are splendidly versatile this is a result of the items selling in the ideal rivalry. The items are indistinguishable so no firm has power over the market cost, in the event that one firm builds the cost of the item the purchasers will quickly move to the result of different firms on the grounds that the items are indistinguishable. No firm has the motivator lessen the cost of their item. So the interest bend would be a level straight line corresponding to the X pivot, this demonstrates the interest is splendidly versatile. A cost increment will bring the amount requested to zero.
B). The monopolists is just the single vendor in the market, so he can charge any value he needs, yet the amount requested will be relied on the value he charges. For instance in the event that he charges a significant expense the amount demanded will be very less and the other way around. So the monopolist is capable sell more at lower costs just, the descending inclining request bend shows the negative connection between the cost and the amount requested.
C). In the ideal rivalry there is consummately flexible interest so the MR curve is likewise the interest curve of the firm. For the monopolist the MR curve lies underneath the interest curve, as the costs go bring down the MR decreases.
Answer and Explanation:
The adjustment should be as follows
Unearned Rent Revenue $47,400
To Rent Revenue $47,400
(Being recording of revenue earned is recorded)
Here unearned rent revenue is debited as it decreased the liabilities and the rent revenue is credited as it increased the revenue. Also liabilities and revenue contains the normal debit balance
The working is shown below:
= $71,100 × 8 months ÷ 12 months
= $47,400
The eight months are calculated from May 1 to December 31
Answer:
$1,000,000
Explanation:
Gallagher Corporation
Stock option × Option estimated fair value /Numbers of years
Stock option $400,000
Option estimated fair value $10
Numbers of years 4
Hence:
($400,000 × $10) / 4 years
=$4,000,000/4years
= $1,000,000
Therefore pretax compensation expense for year 1 will be $1,000,000
