From V= 4/3*pi*r^3
<span>dV/dt = 4pi(r^2)dr/dt </span>
<span>so when dV/dt=30 and r = 19 </span>
<span>30 = 4pi(361)dr/dt </span>
<span>dr/dt = 30/[4pi(361)] </span>
<span>now in </span>
<span>A = 4pir^2 </span>
<span>dA/dt = 8pi(r)dr/dt </span>
<span>= 8pi(19)*30/[4pi(361)] </span>
<span>= you finish it.</span>
<span>HOPE THIS HELPS.
</span>
Answer: Just apply the formula
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation for volume of a cone is:
The radius is the line that creates a 90 degree angle with the height
The height goes from the base to the tip of the cone.
I recommend leaving Pi as it is and plugging the rest of the numbers first.
Then at the end multiply by 3.14 and round at the end.
This way, it is easier to avoid calculation errors.
Hello from MrBillDoesMath!
Answer: infinite solutions
Discussion: I did a double take on this one but the left hand is
a + 3 + 2a = 3a +3
and the right hand side is
-1 + 3a + 4 = 3a + (4-1) = 3a + 3
The left and right sides of the equation are identical for all "a", i.e. for infinitely many "a" values.
Regards, MrB.
Two lines and a point are guaranteed to be coplanar if the two lines share only a single point.
Hope this helped :)
