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zloy xaker [14]
2 years ago
10

,,,,,??,??,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andre45 [30]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

  the one real zero is in the interval (-1, 0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Descartes' rule of signs tells you there are 0 or 2 positive real zeros. Changing the signs of the odd-degree terms and applying that rule again tells you there is one negative real zero. At the same time, those coefficients (-3, -5, -5, +7) have a negative sum, so you know ...

  f(-1) = -6

  f(0) = +7

so there is a zero in the interval (-1, 0).

__

You can try a few values between x=0 and x=10 to see what the function does in that part of the graph. You find ...

  f(1) = 10

  f(2) = 21

  f(3) = 58

So, it is safe to conclude that there are no real zeros for x > 0.

The only real zero of f(x) is in the interval (-1, 0).

_____

I like to use a graphing calculator for problems like this.

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skelet666 [1.2K]
Find slope
slope betwen 2 points (x1,y1) and (x2,y2) is (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

so
first make denoms same
denom is 10
(4/5,1/5) turns to (8/10,2/10)
(1/2,3/2) turns to (5/10,15/10)
slope=(15/10-2/10)/(5/10-8/10)=(13/10)/(-3/10)=13/-3=-13/3

use point slope
use (4/5,1/5)
y-y1=m(x-x1)
a point is (x1,y1) and slope is m
y-1/5=-13/3(x-4/5)
expand
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