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3 years ago

A ____________ gap between GDP and NDP indicates an increasing obsolescence/depreciation of capital goods..

Business

1 answer:

Tatiana [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

GDP is gross domestic product and NDP is net domestic product.

GDP measures market value of total goods and services produced in a particular period of time.

NDP is net domestic product . In its calculation, we deduct the value of depreciation of capital goods produced from the value of GDP.

NDP = GDP - depreciation .

So growing gap between GDP and NDP reflects the increasing obsolescence of capital goods , which warrants replacement of capital goods .

OPTION A is correct.

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Pretax accounting income for the year ended December 31, 2021, was $53 million for Truffles Company. Truffles' taxable income wa

Anuta_ua [19.1K]

Answer:

$17,820,000

Explanation:

The amount of tax due to government authorities for the current period is referred to as current portion of income tax expense. It is calculated by product of current or enacted tax rate and taxable income for the period

Taxable income for 2021 = $66million

Enacted or current tax rate for 2021 = 27%

Current portion of income tax expense for 2021 = Taxable income x current tax rate = $66 million x 27% = $17,820,000million

Hence Current portion of income tax expense = $18 million

4 0

3 years ago

Andrej [43]

.Answer:

A. customer classification

Explanation:

Classification of consumers is the process of grouping customers according to shared traits. Customers in the same group will share some common characteristics that a business can use to serve them better. In customer classification, the firm seeks to identify the common traits that make customers have similar buying patterns.

The manager in the clothing brand has identified traits he can use to classify the target customers into four groups. He has applied customer classification. If he subdivides each group by specific attributes such as age, gender, or other similarities, he would be doing customer segmentation

7 0

3 years ago

Jean Claude has just completed a new line of designer handbags. He wants the price to communicate to the customer that the handb

Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

The answer is B. Price Skimming

Explanation:

In marketing, price skimming is a situation in which a high price is initially charged for a product and lowers it later after achieving its aim.

This type of product can be a luxury good in which high price is deemed as of high quality. The main aim is to gather enough revenue from the premium buyers and lowers it later to attract other customers

Price Skimming is usually set for products that have short life-cycle

7 0

3 years ago

If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4

Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4 the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0

3 years ago

Which best explains how the law of demand affects consumers?

yuradex [85]

It helps tell producers when a price is too high

6 0

3 years ago