Answer:
C. are unaffected by the degree of operating efficiency in a given budget period.
Explanation:
Fixed over head costs or indirect costs are cost that do not vary with the level of out put. They are essential cost required to manage a business.
These costs are the same months by Months and are needed for the smooth running of the business. They are also unaffected by the degree of operating efficiency in a given budget period.
Examples of fixed overhead are rents, salaries, depreciation , insurance and taxes. It should however be noted that if there is an increase in sales compared to the budgeted sales of the company, there could be an increase in fixed overhead cost due to additional employees and administrative staff.
Answer:
Positive Statements: 1st & 2nd ; Normative Statements: 3rd & 4th
Explanation:
Positive Economics is <u>objective</u> & <u>facts</u> based <u>actual</u> economic issue description , explaining verifiable phenomenas (causal relationships).
Normative Economics is <u>subjective</u> & opinion based conclusive <u>solutions</u> to economic issues, including '<u>ought to be</u>' unverifiable suggestions.
1. Lung cancer kills millions of people each year: reflects actual objective verifiable fact about an economic (health) issue.
2. Too many people smoke: denotes another actual objective variable fact connected to (potential cause of) the above economic (health) issue.
So , these two are Positive Statements.
3. If the government were to increase taxes on cigarettes, fewer people would smoke : Is subjective opinion based probable solution to the above economic (health) issue.
4. The government should increase taxes on cigarettes : Is an 'ought to' suggestion for an economic participant (govt) to solve the above economic (health) issue.
So , these two are Normative Statements
a.
WACC is calculated as –
WACC = (Weight of common stock X Cost of common stock) + (Weight of preferred stock X Cost of preferred stock) + (Weight of debt X After tax cost of debt)
WACC = (64% X 13.4%) + (9% X 6.4%) + (27% X ((1- 40%)*8.1%))
WACC = 10.46%
b. After tax cost of debt is calculated as –
After tax cost of debt = (1- tax rate) X cost of debt pre-tax
After tax cost of debt = ((1- 40%)*8.1%))
After tax cost of debt = 4.86%
The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Using this formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]
Where:
Stock A Expected Return (Wa) =16%
Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%
Stock B Expected Return (Wb)= 12%
Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%
Let plug in the formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%
Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Learn more here:
brainly.com/question/21273560
