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3 years ago

11

Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent

?

2 answers:

Andrews [41]3 years ago

4 0

It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not.

bezimeni [28]3 years ago

3 0

Yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.

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2 years ago

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2 years ago

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1 year ago

Read 2 more answers