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77julia77 [94]
3 years ago
11

Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent

?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Andrews [41]3 years ago
4 0
It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not. 
bezimeni [28]3 years ago
3 0
Yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.
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