Answer:
$91,900
Explanation:
The computation of net sales revenue is shown below:-
Here, for reaching the net sales revenue we add the sales revenue and deduct the sales return and allowances with sales discounts
Net sales revenue = Sales Revenue - Sales Returns and Allowances - Sales Discounts
= $95,000 - $1,000 - $2,100
= $91,900
Therefore we have applied the above formula.
When investors give computer instructions to sell automatically to avoid potential losses if their stock price dips to a certain point, it is called program trading.
<h3>What is program trading?</h3>
Program trading is what create space or time for multiple trades to occur simultaneously.
It is an automated process that gives instructions to computers to sell when price of a stock goes down to prevent loss.
Learn more about program trading here: brainly.com/question/13955369
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Answer:
The answer is "Option c"
Explanation:
The Dividend payout ratio is 40% so that EPS* is the dividend payout ratio of the company:
![= 6 \times 40 \% \\\\= \$ \ 2.40](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%206%20%5Ctimes%2040%20%5C%25%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%20%5C%24%20%5C%202.40)
Inventory market value:
![= Dividend \times \frac{(1+g)}{(r-g)}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%20Dividend%20%5Ctimes%20%5Cfrac%7B%281%2Bg%29%7D%7B%28r-g%29%7D)
Where r = return rate is needed
g= growth ![= 5.25\% = \frac{5.25}{100} = 0.0525](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%205.25%5C%25%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B5.25%7D%7B100%7D%20%3D%200.0525)
![\to 22.86 = \frac{(2.4 \times (1+g))}{ r-0.0525}\\\\\to 22.86 = \frac{(2.4 \times (1+0.0525))}{r-0.0525}\\\\\to (22.86 \times r)-(22.86 \times 0.0525)=2.526\\\\\to (22.86 \times r)-1.20015=2.526\\\\\to 22.86r=3.72615\\\\\to r=0.1630\\\\\to r=16.30 \%](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cto%2022.86%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%282.4%20%5Ctimes%20%281%2Bg%29%29%7D%7B%20r-0.0525%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cto%2022.86%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%282.4%20%5Ctimes%20%281%2B0.0525%29%29%7D%7Br-0.0525%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cto%20%2822.86%20%5Ctimes%20r%29-%2822.86%20%5Ctimes%200.0525%29%3D2.526%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cto%20%2822.86%20%20%5Ctimes%20r%29-1.20015%3D2.526%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cto%2022.86r%3D3.72615%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cto%20r%3D0.1630%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cto%20r%3D16.30%20%5C%25)
Allowance method of accounting for bad debts
.
Option - B
<u>Explanation:
</u>
The financial accounting term payments method refers to a system that is unplayable and records a bad debt expenditure estimate in the same period of accounting as the purchase. The deduction is used to adjust the cash flow accounts receivable.
The payment method is a better solution to the direct payment method because it is in line with the matching accounting theory.
Bad debts expenses are recognized soon since bad debts are likely and can be estimated to a fairly precise degree so that they meet the criteria necessary to recognize predicated losses and recognize the costs of bad debts.
Answer:
She will have $16,772.59 more in the second investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Recently she received an inheritance of $54,000 from her grandmother's estate. She plans to use the money for the down payment on a home in ten years when she finishes her education.
We need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
First savings account:
FV= 54,000*(1+0.04)^10= $79,933.19
Second investment:
FV= 54,000*(1+0.06)^10= $96,705.78
She will have (96,705.78 - 79,933.19) $16,772.59 more in the second investment.