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Oxana [17]
3 years ago
12

A correlation coefficient (r) is an appropriate measure of the strength of relationship between two numerical variables even whe

n the underlying relationship between the variables is non-linear.a. Trueb. False
Mathematics
1 answer:
masya89 [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The given statement is false.

Step-by-step explanation:

Correlation

  • Correlation is a technique that help us to find or define a relationship between two variables.
  • It is a measure of linear relationship between two quantities.

Thus, we can say that the given statement is false.

Correlation coefficient does not measure non linear relationship between two variables.

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Laura shades 60 squares on her hundredths grid And Billy shades 50 squares on his hundredths grid. Write the decimal number that
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

Laura = 0.60

Billy = 0.50

0.60 > 0.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Laura = 60\ shades

Billy = 50\ shades

Required

Represent using decimal number and compare

From the question, we understand that there are 100th grids;

So:

Laura = \frac{60}{100}

Laura = 0.60

Billy = \frac{50}{100}

Billy = 0.50

Comparing both decimals;

Since 0.60 is greater than 0.50, we have:

0.60 > 0.50

3 0
3 years ago
There are 1,200 students at Roosevelt middle school. There are 700 boys at the school. What percentage of the students at Roosev
Stella [2.4K]
Out of 1,200 students, 700 are boys. Therefore, the fraction would be \frac{700}{1200}.

To convert this into a percentage, divide 700 by 1,200.

\frac{700}{1200} = 0.583333 (or just 0.583 if you round)

Multiply 0.583 by 100 to get a percentage.

0.583 · 100 = 58.3

So, the percent of boys at the school is 58.3%.
4 0
3 years ago
Solve on [0,2pi). Answer in order from smallest to biggest<br> cos x sin x = sin x
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

0, π

Step-by-step explanation:

cos x sin x = sin x

cos x sin x - sin x = 0

sin x (cos x - 1) = 0

sin x = 0, x = 0, π

cos x - 1 = 0

cos x = 1, x = 0

So answers: 0, π

3 0
2 years ago
Help with multi step inequalities please
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

B. The solution is valid because all steps to solve the inequality for F are correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

F - 32 ≤ 0

Add 32 to both sides of the equation to have;

F -32 + 32 ≤ 0 + 32

F ≤ 0 + 32

F ≤ 32

It can be observed that to solve for F, the steps are correct. Thus the solution is valid. Therefore, the correct choice in the given question is the solution is valid because all steps to solve the inequality for F are correct.

5 0
3 years ago
Three times a number added to six is equal to five times the same number.
NISA [10]
Here you go if you need help solving I’ve got you

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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