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dsp73
3 years ago
12

A 3rd degree binomial with a constant term of 8

Mathematics
2 answers:
bezimeni [28]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2x^{3} +8

Step-by-step explanation:

A binomial expression has two terms. For example, 4x + 5, 5y^{2} + 10x

The degree of any polynomial refers to the term with the highest exponent on its variable. For example, In expression 4x + 5, the exponent of x is 1 so it is 1st degree polynomial and in the same way, for 5y^{2} + 10x since the variable y has the highest exponent i.e., 2 therefore it is 2nd degree polynomial.

Now, third degree binomial with constant term 8 = 2x^{3} +8

As it has two terms where first term is 2x^{3} and second term is 8. Therefore, it is called binomial and since the highest exponent with variable x is 3, therefore it is third degree binomial with constant term of 8.

VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is -5x^3+8

I just did the quiz :)

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8 0
3 years ago
Need help pleaseI was bad at math in school so lwant to learn
aleksklad [387]

The probability of an event is expressed as

Pr(\text{event) =}\frac{Total\text{ number of favourable/desired outcome}}{Tota\text{l number of possible outcome}}

Given:

\begin{gathered} \text{Red}\Rightarrow2 \\ \text{Green}\Rightarrow3 \\ \text{Blue}\Rightarrow2 \\ \Rightarrow Total\text{ number of balls = 2+3+2=7 balls} \end{gathered}

The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as

Pr(\text{blue)}\times Pr(blue)

For the first draw:

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue) = }\frac{number\text{ of blue balls}}{total\text{ number of balls}} \\ =\frac{2}{7} \end{gathered}

For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).

Thus,

\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue)}=\frac{number\text{ of blue balls left}}{total\text{ number of balls left}} \\ =\frac{1}{6} \end{gathered}

The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6}\times\frac{2}{7} \\ =\frac{1}{21} \end{gathered}

The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\begin{gathered} 1-\frac{1}{21} \\ =\frac{20}{21} \end{gathered}

Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

\frac{20}{21}

8 0
1 year ago
Dog food costs 9$ per bag and cat food costs 8$ per bag. if billy spent 89$ and purchased 6 bags of dog food, how many bags of c
REY [17]
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3 years ago
X=8, y=20 find y when x=42
kherson [118]

You can make a proportion of 8/20 to 42/x and then simply cross multiply from there to solve for y
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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