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Cloud [144]
2 years ago
9

Please help will give brainliest

Mathematics
1 answer:
photoshop1234 [79]2 years ago
3 0
<h2>Answer:</h2><h2 />

If we have two functions f \ and \ g such that f(g(x))=x for every x in the domain of g, and g(f(x))=x for every for every xin  the domain of  f. If we prove this, then g is the invers function of f and denoted by f^{-1}

1. We need to prove whether f(g(x))=x. So:

f(x)=\frac{4}{5}x+1 \\ \\ g(x)=\frac{5x-5}{4} \\ \\ So: \\ \\ f(g(x))=\frac{4}{5}\left(\frac{5x-5}{4})+1 \therefore f(g(x))=\frac{4}{5}\left(\frac{5x-5}{4})+1

\therefore f(g(x))=x-1+1 \\ \\ \boxed{f(g(x))=x}

2. We need to prove whether g(f(x))=x. So:

g(f(x))=\frac{5(\frac{4x}{5}+1)-5}{4} \\ \\ \\ g(f(x))=\frac{4x+5-5}{4} \\ \\ \\ g(f(x))=\frac{4x}{4} \\ \\ \\ g(f(x))=x

Since f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x, then:

f(x) \ and \ g(x) are inverses to each other.

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