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EastWind [94]
3 years ago
6

How might you prove your observations about the slope of a midsegment in part d using algebra and x- and y-coordinates? Briefly

outline an approach using what you know about midpoints and parallel lines. Use the figure you created in GeoGebra to guide you.
Mathematics
2 answers:
ioda3 years ago
4 0

Answer: I can use variables to represent the coordinates of the vertices for a general triangle ABC. then I can calculate the midpoints of the sides in terms of the same variables, and calculate the slope of each midsegment showing that the expression for the slope of a midsegment is the same as the expression for the slope of the third side of the triangle proves that the two are parallel.

Step-by-step explanation: this is word for word btw!

Lesechka [4]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Answer: I can use variables to represent the coordinates of the vertices for a general triangle ABC. then I can calculate the midpoints of the sides in terms of the same variables, and calculate the slope of each midsegment showing that the expression for the slope of a midsegment is the same as the expression for the slope of the third side of the triangle proves that the two are parallel.

Step-by-step explanation: this is word for word btw!

Step-by-step explanation:

THANKS U PLATO

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Can someone help me solve this problems
Anvisha [2.4K]

x = 4 and x = - 9

In both cases the angles inside the parallel lines are same sided interior angles

24x - 1 + 20x + 5 = 180

44x + 4 = 180 (subtract 4 from both sides )

44x = 176 ( divide both sides by 44 )

x = \frac{176}{44} = 4

Similarly

x + 109 + x + 89 = 180

2x + 198 = 180 ( subtract 198 from both sides )

2x = - 18

x = \frac{-18}{2} = - 9


7 0
3 years ago
Linear Algebra question! Please help!
kozerog [31]

Answers:

  1. false
  2. false
  3. true
  4. false
  5. True

==================================================

Explanation:

Problem 1

This is false because the A and B should swap places. It should be (AB)^{-1} = B^{-1}A^{-1}.

The short proof is to multiply AB with its inverse (AB)^{-1}  and we get: (AB)*(AB)^{-1} = (AB)*(B^{-1}A^{-1}) = A(B*B^{-1})*A^{-1} = A*A^{-1} = I

The fact we get the identity matrix proves that we have the proper order at this point. The swap happens so that B matches up its corresponding inverse B^{-1} and the two cancel each other out.

Keep in mind matrix multiplication is <u>not</u> commutative. So AB is not the same as BA.

-------------------------

Problem 2

This statement is true if and only if AB = BA

(A+B)^2 = (A+B)(A+B)

(A+B)^2 = A(A+B) + B(A+B)

(A+B)^2 = A^2 + AB + BA + B^2

(A+B)^2 = A^2 + 2AB + B^2 ... only works if AB = BA

However, in most general settings, matrix multiplication is <u>not</u> commutative. The order is important when multiplying most two matrices. Only for special circumstances is when AB = BA going to happen. In general,  AB = BA is false which is why statement two breaks down and is false in general.

-------------------------

Problem 3

This statement is true.

If A and B are invertible, then so is AB.

This is because both A^{-1} and B^{-1} are known to exist (otherwise A and B wouldn't be invertible) and we can use the rule mentioned in problem 1. Make sure to swap the terms of course.

Or you can use a determinant argument to prove the claim

det(A*B) = det(A)*det(B)

Since A and B are invertible, their determinants det(A) and det(B) are nonzero which makes the right hand side nonzero. Therefore det(A*B) is nonzero and AB has an inverse.

So if we have two invertible matrices, then their product is also invertible. This idea can be scaled up to include things like A^4*B^3 being also invertible.

If you wanted, you can carefully go through it like this:

  1. If A and B are invertible, then so is AB
  2. If A and AB are invertible, then so is A*AB = A^2B
  3. If A and A^2B are invertible, then so is A*A^2B = A^3B

and so on until you build up to A^4*B^3. Therefore, we can conclude that A^m*B^n is also invertible. Be careful about the order of multiplying the matrices. Something like A*AB is different from AB*A, the first of which is useful while the second is not.

So this is why statement 3 is true.

-------------------------

Problem 4

This is false. Possibly a quick counter-example is to consider these two matrices

A = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \text{ and } B = \begin{bmatrix}-1 & 0\\0 & -1\end{bmatrix}

both of which are invertible since their determinant is nonzero (recall the determinant of a diagonal matrix is simply the product along the diagonal entries). So it's not too hard to show that the determinant of each is 1, and each matrix shown is invertible.

However, adding those two mentioned matrices gets us the 2x2 zero matrix, which is a matrix of nothing but zeros. Clearly the zero matrix has determinant zero and is therefore not invertible.

There are some cases when A+B may be invertible, but it's not true in general.

-------------------------

Problem 5

This is true because each A pairs up with an A^{-1} to cancel out (similar what happened with problem 1). For more info, check out the concept of diagonalization.

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2 years ago
1. A length of rope is stretched between the top edge of a building and a stake in the ground. The head of the stake is at groun
denpristay [2]

Answer:

19

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
One online seller has about 6x10to the 8th online orders, and another online seller has about 5x10 to the 7th orders. How many t
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Answer:

100000000

Step-by-step explanation:

6 times 10 to the 8th is 600,000,000

5 times 10 to the 7th is 500,000,000

600,000,000-500,000,000=100,000,000

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3 years ago
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