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Vinil7 [7]
3 years ago
15

"The Small Business Administration (SBA) is a government agency designed to help" small business owners.B)SBA does not directly

lend money, instead it helps partner business owners with other lenders in order to have more secure funding.C)SBA loans are not guaranteed.D)Some microfinance institutions have turned into predatory loan sharks.E)All the above are true
Business
1 answer:
kupik [55]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Statement C is a FALSE statement.

<u>SBA loans are not guaranteed.</u>

Explanation:

Small business administration loans are guaranteed by federal agency which allows the lenders to offer them with flexible terms and conditions as it provides with a sense of security to lenders.

So Statement (C) SBA loans are not guaranteed is a FALSE statement.

SBA is government agency which help partner business owners in getting loans as some microfinance organization have turned into predatory loan sharks.

So statement (A) ,(B), and (D) are TRUE.

So the correct answer would be option (C) as it is a false statement.

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A decrease in the inventory account during the year should be reported on the indirect method statement of cash flows as:
Elza [17]

Answer:

a.An increase in cash flows from operating activities

Explanation:

The cash flow statement categories the company's transactions in a financial period into 3 groups; these are operating, investing and financing.

The net profit/loss, depreciation, changes in current assets such as inventory, accounts receivables etc, (other than cash) and liabilities are considered as operating activities including income taxes.  

The sale of assets, interest received, purchase of investments are examples of investing activities while the issuance of stocks, debt principal deduction (loan settlement), issuance of debt securities etc are examples of financing activities.

An increase in assets other than cash is an outflow while an increase in liabilities is an inflow. A decrease in assets (other than cash) is an inflow of cash while a decrease in liabilities is an outflow of cash.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are interested in valuing a 2-year semi-annual corporate coupon bond using spot rates but there are no liquid strips availab
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

Following are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Assume that r_1  will be a 12-month for the spot rate:

\to 1.25 \% \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99 + \frac{(1.25\% \times \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to \frac{1.25}{100} \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99 + \frac{(\frac{1.25}{100} \times \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to \frac{1.25}{2} \times 0.99 + \frac{(\frac{1.25}{2} +100)}{(1+\frac{r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 + \frac{( 0.625 +100)}{(\frac{2+r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 + \frac{( 100.625)}{(\frac{2+r_1}{2})^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 + \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}=98\\\\

\to 0.61875 + \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}=98\\\\\to 0.61875 -98 = \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}\\\\\to -97.38125= \frac{402.5}{(2+r_1)^2}\\\\\to (2+r_1)^2= \frac{402.5}{ -97.38125}\\\\\to (2+r_1)^2= -4.13\\\\ \to r_1=3.304\%

Assume that r_2  will be a 18-month for the spot rate:

\to 1.5\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99+1.5\%  \times \frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{3.300\%}{2})^2}+\frac{(1.5\%  \times  \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to \frac{1.5}{100} \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99+\frac{1.5}{100}  \times \frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{\frac{3.300}{100}}{2})^2}+\frac{(\frac{1.5}{100}  \times  \frac{100}{2}+100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\

\to \frac{1.5}{2}  \times 0.99+\frac{1.5}{2}\times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{\frac{3.300}{100}}{2})^2}+\frac{(\frac{1.5}{2} +100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 0.7425+0.75 \times \frac{1}{(1+ \frac{\frac{3.300}{100}}{2})^2}+\frac{(0.75  +100)}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4925 \times \frac{1}{(1+0.0165)^2}+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4925 \times \frac{1}{(1.033)}+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\

\to 1.4925 \times 0.96+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4328+\frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}=97\\\\\to 1.4328-97= \frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}\\\\\to -95.5672= \frac{(100.75 )}{(1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3}\\\\\to (1+\frac{r_2}{2})^3= -1.054\\\\\to r_2=3.577\%

Assume that r_3  will be a 18-month for the spot rate:

\to 1.25\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times 0.99+1.25\% \times \frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+\frac{3.300\%}{2})^2}+1.25\%\times\frac{100}{2} \times \frac{1}{(1+\frac{3.577\%}{2})^3}+(1.25\% \times \frac{\frac{100}{2}+100}{(1+\frac{r_3}{2})^4})=96\\\\

to solve this we get r_3=3.335\%

4 0
3 years ago
How does the stock market work?<br> (I am giving out free brainliest)
elixir [45]

Individual and institutional investors come together on stock exchanges to buy and sell shares in a public venue. Share prices are set by supply and demand as buyers and sellers place orders. Order flow and bid-ask spreads are often maintained by specialists or market makers to ensure an orderly and fair market.

hope it helps...!!!

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The 2017 Form 10-K of Oracle Corporation, for the May 31, 2017 year-end, included the following information relating to their al
KatRina [158]

Answer:

B. $129 million

Explanation:

bad debt expense for the year = balance in allowance at the end + write off - balance in allowance at the beggining

= $319 million + $137 million - $327 million

= $129 million

Therefore, Oracle Corporation report as bad debt expense for the year is $129 million.

5 0
3 years ago
According to the article by Hutchinson, Farris and Anders (2007), cash-to-cash analysis is difficult because financial data and
Margarita [4]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

"Cash-to-cash Analysis and Management" by<em> Hutchinson, Farris and Anders</em> talks about the availability of the<em> financial data</em> and <em>computer technology</em> in assisting a business when it comes to determining its <u>cash-to-cash position </u><em><u>(C2C)</u></em><em>,</em> as well as the <em>benchmarks</em> needed for comparison.

Cash-to-cash analysis was difficult in the past, however, it is easier nowadays. The supply chain is even examined at a broader view than before. C2C efficiency is possible by utilizing the<em> readily available</em> financial date and computer technology. So, this makes the statement above as "false."

So, this explains the answer.

6 0
3 years ago
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