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klemol [59]
3 years ago
12

What is 8/15 x 5/8 and 2/9 x 3/4

Mathematics
1 answer:
larisa86 [58]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

8/15 x 5/8 = 1/3

2/9 x 3/4 = 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply the numerators and denominators together.

8/15 x 5/8 = (8 x 5)/ (15 x 8)

40/120

Simplify by dividing by 40. (GCF)

1/3

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

multiply the numerators and denominators together.

2/9 x 3/4 = (2 x 3)/ (9 x 4)

6/36

Simplify by dividing by 6. (GCF)

1/2

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Answer:

119.43cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the area of the shaded region is shown below:

As we know that

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Step-by-step explanation:

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A lathe is set to cut bars of steel into lengths of 6 cm. The lathe is considered to be in perfect adjustment if the average len
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

t=\frac{5.97-6}{\frac{0.4}{\sqrt{93}}}=-0.723    

E. -0.723

df=n-1=93-1=92  

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Since the p value is very high we don't have enough evidence to conclude that the true mean for the lengths is different from 6 cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

Information provided

\bar X=5.97 represent the sample mean for the length

s=0.4 represent the sample standard deviation

n=93 sample size  

\mu_o =6 represent the value that we want to test

\alpha=0.05 represent the significance level

t would represent the statistic  

p_v represent the p value for the test

System of hypothesis

We need to conduct a hypothesis in order to check if the lathe is in perfect adjustment (6cm), then the system of hypothesis would be:  

Null hypothesis:\mu = 6  

Alternative hypothesis:\mu \neq 6  

since we don't know the population deviation the statistic is:

t=\frac{\bar X-\mu_o}{\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}}}  (1)  

Replacing in formula (1) we got:

t=\frac{5.97-6}{\frac{0.4}{\sqrt{93}}}=-0.723    

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P value

The degrees of freedom are given by:

df=n-1=93-1=92  

Since is a two tailed test the p value would be:  

p_v =2*P(t_{(92)}  

Since the p value is very high we don't have enough evidence to conclude that the true mean for the lengths is different from 6 cm.

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Answer:

  infinitely many

Step-by-step explanation:

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We see this is identical to the first equation. That means every solution of the first equation is also a solution of the second equation. There are infinitely many solutions.

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