Answer:
under applied by $1,000.
Explanation:
The formula is shown below:
Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours)
= $101,998 ÷ 67,992 hours
= $1.50
Now we have to find the applied overhead which equal to
= Actual direct labor-hours × predetermined overhead rate
= 70,000 hours × $1.50
= $105,000
So, the ending overhead equals to
= Actual manufacturing overhead - actual overhead
= $106,000 - $105,000
= $1,000 under-applied
Answer:
B. equity financing
Explanation:
Equity financing involves giving up part of the company because it will have to be shared with the partners of the organization who are usually the investors.
Answer with explanation:
It is better for companies to offer a mixture of compensation programs instead of only one since it attracts a major number of competent workers. Some employees might be very selective at the time of choosing a job according to the benefits they could receive. For instance, a high executive could prefer to start working in an "A" firm since they organization offers an attractive number of stock shares per year as part of the compensation program instead of working for firm "B" that is not even publicly listed.
Answer:
a) 12.87%
b) 11.03%
Explanation:
EBIT with no debt = $111,000
net income = $111,000 x (1 - 22%) = $86,580
total value of the firm with no debt = $86,580 / 12% = $721,500
value of the firm after debt is taken = $721,500 + ($165,000 x 22%) = $757,800
debt to equity ratio after debt is taken = $165,000 / ($757,800 - $165,000) = 27.834%
new cost of equity (Re) = 12% + [(12% - 8%) x 27.834% x (1 - 22%)] = 12.87%
WACC = (0.72166 x 12.87%) + (0.27834 x 8% x 0.78) = 9.288% + 1.737% = 11.025$ = 11.03%
Investing money is always good when the stock market is good
