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Alexxandr [17]
3 years ago
8

The long run aggregate supply curve is a vertical line. It is so because it has nothing to do with the price level. It is rather

determined by availability of economic resources and technology. How will the followings shift the long run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve? to the right, to the left? a. climate change permanently reduces the amount of land that can be farmed. b. immigration increases the available supply of labor. c. ageing population takes workers out of the labor force. d. a new law stripping away intellectual property rights reduces the incentive to innovate.
Business
1 answer:
mojhsa [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a. To the left

b. To the right

c. To the left

d. To the left

Explanation:

a. A reduction in total area to do farming means that the economy will be able to produce less. This will shift the aggregate supply curve to the left.

b. Immigration causes the supply of labor to increase. This means that more labor can be employed in the process of production.

c. A reduction in the labor force due to the aging population will cause the aggregate supply curve to move to the left. This is because, with the fewer labor force, the economy will be able to produce less.

d. A new law that reduces the incentive to innovate will cause the aggregate supply curve to shift to the left. A reduction in innovation means fewer technological advancement.

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PLS HELPPP FASTTT!!!! Which of the following is not consistent with the efficient market hypothesis?
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

c. News has no effect on stock prices.

Explanation:

A foreign exchange market can be defined as a type of market where the currency of a country is converted to that of another country. For example, the conversion of the United States of America dollars into naira, rands, yen, pounds, euros, etc., at the foreign exchange market.

Efficient market school is the market school which argues that forward exchange rates do the best possible job for forecasting future spot exchange rates, so investing in exchange rate forecasting services would be a waste of time because it is impossible to have a consistent alpha generation on a risk adjusted excess returns basis as market prices are only affected by new informations.

The efficient market school also known as the efficient market hypothesis (EMH) is a hypothesis which states that, asset (share) prices reflect all information and it is very much impossible to consistently beat the market. Also, forward exchange rates are exchange rates controlling foreign exchange transactions at a specific future date or time.

According to the efficient market hypothesis, News has an effect on

the prices at which a stock is sold because it affects demand and supply.

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following terms addresses the problem when introducing a new product line could steal sales away from an existing p
lora16 [44]

Answer:

"A"

Explanation:

Market enhancement is the process of improving the production line of an existing product in order to increase the value, efficiency and effectiveness giving the product a market leading status and an edge over the rivals and  new entrants.

It involves research , review and upgrade of production system

This is used to ensure that an existing product has the features to withstand the competition that a new product might bring

7 0
3 years ago
Island Corporation applies overhead based upon machine-hours. Budgeted factory overhead was $375,000 and budgeted machine-hours
vivado [14]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Island Corporation applies overhead based upon machine-hours. Budgeted factory overhead was $375,000 and budgeted machine-hours were 12,500. Actual factory overhead was $387,920 and actual machine-hours were 13,150.

A) Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 375,000/12,500= $30 per machine hour

B) Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 30*13,150= $394,500

C) Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH

Over/under allocation= 387,920 - 394,500= 6,580 overallocated

6 0
3 years ago
An investment project has annual cash inflows of $4,400, $3,900, $5,100, and $4,300, for the next four years, respectively. The
RoseWind [281]

Answer:

Discounted payback period shall be as follows:

a. 1 year 7.36 months

b. 2 years 3.27 months

c. 3 years 2.9 months

Explanation:

a. Payback period in case of cash outflow = $5,700

For calculating the pay back period we shall firstly discount the cash flows to present value @14 %.

Year         Cash Flow         PV Factor           PV of Cash Flow       Cumulative

                                                                                                            Cash Flow

0                 -  $5,700            1                             - $5,700                    -5,700

1                     $4,400         0.877                         $3,858.8                -$1,841.2

2                    $3,900         0.770                         $3,003                    $1,161.8

Since the cumulative cash flows are positive in 2nd year payback period =

1 + \frac{1,841.2}{3,003} \times 12 = 1 year and 7.36 months

b. Payback period in case of cash outflow = $7,800

For calculating the pay back period we shall firstly discount the cash flows to present value @14 %.

Year         Cash Flow         PV Factor           PV of Cash Flow       Cumulative

                                                                                                            Cash Flow

0                 -  $7,800            1                             - $7,800                    -7,800

1                     $4,400         0.877                         $3,858.8                -$3,941.2

2                    $3,900         0.770                         $3,003                    -$938.2

3                    $5,100          0.675                         $3,442.5                  $2,504.3

Since the cumulative cash flows are positive in 3rd year payback period =

2 + \frac{938.2}{3,442.5} \times 12 = 2 years and 3.27 months

b. Payback period in case of cash outflow = $10,800

For calculating the pay back period we shall firstly discount the cash flows to present value @14 %.

Year         Cash Flow         PV Factor           PV of Cash Flow       Cumulative

                                                                                                            Cash Flow

0               -  $10,800            1                          - $10,800                   -$10,800

1                   $4,400         0.877                         $3,858.8                 -$6,941.2

2                  $3,900         0.770                         $3,003                    -$3,938.2

3                  $5,100          0.675                         $3,442.5                   -$495.7

4                  $4,300          0.592                        $2,545.6                   $2,049.9

Since the cumulative cash flows are positive in 4th year payback period =

3 + \frac{495.7}{2,049.9} \times 12 = 3 years and 2.9 months

Final Answer

Discounted payback period shall be as follows:

a. 1 year 7.36 months

b. 2 years 3.27 months

c. 3 years 2.9 months

7 0
3 years ago
The field of accounting that reports according to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) is called:cost accounting.fina
Flauer [41]

Answer:

Financial accounting

Explanation:

The Generally accepted accounting principle (GAAP) is the standard, principles and  procedures that accountant must follow or adhere to when compiling financial statements. The major objective of GAAP is to make the accounting process uniform so financial reports are comparable from one company to another.

4 0
3 years ago
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