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lilavasa [31]
3 years ago
10

You discovered you can deduct medical expenses over 6% of your income. Your income is $42,000 and you had medical expenses of $5

67. What portion of your medical expenses can you deduct
Mathematics
1 answer:
iren2701 [21]3 years ago
4 0

No portion of your medical expenses you can deduct

Step-by-step explanation:

You discovered you can deduct medical expenses over 6% of

your income

Your income is $42,000

You had medical expenses of $567

We need to find the portion of your medical expenses you can deduct

∵ Your income = $42,000

∵ You can deduct medical expenses over 6% of your income

- Find the 6% for your income

∵ 6% of the income = \frac{6}{100} × 42,000 = $2520

∴ 6% of your income is $2520

∵ You can deduct medical expenses over 6% of your income

∴ If your medical expenses greater than $2520, then you can

   deduct the value greater than it, but if your medical expenses

   smaller than $2520, then you can not deduct any value

∵ You had medical expenses of $567

∵ $567 < $2520

∴ There is no value you can deduct from your medical expenses

No portion of your medical expenses you can deduct

Learn more:

You can learn more about percentage in brainly.com/question/12960754

#LearnwithBrainly

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28.
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

30% * n = 15

Change to decimal form

.30 *n = 15

Divide each side by .30

.30n/.30 = 15/.30

n =50

The number is 50

7 0
3 years ago
Lim<br> x-&gt;infinity (1+1/n)
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} (1+\frac{1}{n})=1

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to evaluate the following limit.


^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} (1+\frac{1}{n})


We need to recall that, limit of a sum is the sum of the limit.


So we need to find each individual limit and add them up.

^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} (1+\frac{1}{n})=^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} (1) +^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}


Recall that, as n\rightarrow \infty,\frac{1}{n} \rightarrow 0 and the limit of a constant, gives the same constant value.



This implies that,


^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} (1+\frac{1}{n})= 1 +0


This gives us,

^{ \lim}_{n \to \infty} (1+\frac{1}{n})= 1


The correct answer is D



5 0
3 years ago
In the diagram, EFG= OPQ complete the statement
Igoryamba
2) EF is congruent to OP
3) angle P is congruent to angle F
4) angle G is congruent to angle Q (that weird upside down parentheses, I think that is a Q)
5) measure of angle O equals 110 degrees and it equals the measure of angle E
6)QO equals GE and it is 7km
7) triangle GFE is congruent to triangle QPO
8 0
2 years ago
Best Buy is having a sale. iPads are marked down 20%. Of the original cost is $399, how much will you pay?
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It is


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According to me?
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Read 2 more answers
Please answer this for me correctly. THANK YOU!!
Leona [35]

Answer:

45

Hope this helps!

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