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Kaylis [27]
3 years ago
6

A customer who is age 75 has been taking RMDs (Required Minimum Distributions) each year from his Traditional IRA in cash. This

year, he asks his representative if he can take the distribution in the form of shares of a mutual fund position in his account. He tells the representative that because it has been a bear market, the share price is depressed and rather than liquidate, he would like to take the shares into his cash account at the firm, awaiting a market rebound. You should tell him that the RMD can:____________
Business
1 answer:
ahrayia [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Taking his RMD in form of shares in a depressed market is a good investment decision. As the price will bound back and he will make more money.

Explanation:

When a traditional IRA holder gets to the age of 72 years he is entitled to required minimum distribution payments. This is not obtainable with other IRA plans.

RMD can be taken as cash or as shares. There is not tax difference between the two options.

Normally cash is better since it is easier to get access to and the beneficiary gets the exact dollar amount.

However when there is a depressed stock market, taking RMD in shares is a better option. Shares are bought and sold when prices appreciate.

This is a better option than selling shares at the low market price.

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Concord Co. uses the gross method to record sales made on credit. On June 1, 2020, it made sales of $57,000 with terms 2/15, n/4
algol [13]

Answer:

See below.

Explanation:

We record the entries as follows,

First record the total gross sales,

Debit accounts receivables by $57,000

Credit Sales by $57,000

Payment terms provide us that 2% discount if paid within 15 days and no discount thereafter.

We record the payments as,

Cash debit by ($57,000 * 0.98) = $55,860

Discounts allowed debit by ($57,000*0.02) = $1,140

Credit Discount receivable by $57,000

Hope that helps.

5 0
4 years ago
Moody Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours. At the be
eduard

a.  The plantwide predetermined overhead rate is $8.7 per machine hour.

b. The Overhead applied is 296.

c.  The total manufacturing cost assigned to Job 400 is $896.

d.  The unit product cost for this job is $14.93.

<h3> Predetermined overhead rate </h3>

a. Predetermined overhead rate

Predetermined overhead rate = Variable overhead cost per machine hour + Fixed manufacturing overhead cost/Estimated machine hours

Predetermined overhead rate= 4.60 + 652,000/159,000

Predetermined overhead rate= 4.60 + 4.10

Predetermined overhead rate= $8.7 per machine hour

b. Overhead applied

Overhead applied = Actual machine hours used x  Predetermined overhead rate

Overhead applied = 34x 8.7

Overhead applied= $295.8

Overhead applied= $296 (rounded to nearest whole dollar)

c.  Total manufacturing cost assigned to Job 400.

Job cost sheet

Direct material $370

Direct labor $230

Overhead applied $296

Total manufacturing cost $896

d. Unit product cost = Total manufacturing cost/Number of units

Unit product cost = 896/60

Unit product cost = $14.93

Inconclusion the plantwide predetermined overhead rate is $8.7 per machine hour and the Overhead applied is 296.

Learn more about  plantwide predetermined overhead rate here:brainly.com/question/13341171

8 0
3 years ago
In the last ________, there has been rapid improvement in the spread of technology to peripheral and semi-peripheral nations, an
12345 [234]

Answer:

two decades

Explanation:

The World Bank suggested technological progress and economic growth rates were contained in their 2008 report which further recognizes that the rural and low-technology products such as corn can gain from the different technological innovations that are happening while mobile banking can aid those that require low technology market vending. All these are the outcome of Technological globalization.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Rodarta Corporation applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard machine-hours. The company's predetermin
marta [7]

Answer:

$357 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance identifies the amount by which actual production differs from budgeted production.

<em>Fixed manufacturing overhead volume variance = Actual Output at Budgeted rate - Budgeted Fixed Overheads</em>

                                                                  = (5,230 × $5.10) - ($5.10 × 5,300)

                                                                   = $26,673 - $27,030

                                                                   = $357 Unfavorable

7 0
4 years ago
Check out this app! It's millions of students helping each other get through their schoolwork. https://brainly.app.link/qpzV02Ma
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

nope im not going to the link sir im not fkn stu.pid

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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