When Brad John talks about the fact that he is going to have to create different financial plans depending on the amount of business the company is bringing in, he is referring to a cash flow plan. It estimates short and long-term expenses against projected incoming cash. This is a form of anticipation through creating cushion intended for unexpected expenses.
Answer:
Option "B" is the correct answer to the following statement.
Explanation:
Given:
Exchange rate of 1 Baht= $0.022
Expected inflation in united states (Assume) = 3% = 0.03
Expected inflation in Thailand (Assume) = 10% = 0.10
Computation:
After 1 year rate of 1 Baht in Dollar
The price in US = 1 × (1+0.03) = $1.03
The price in Thailand = 1 × (1+0.10) = 1.10 baht
1 baht = 1.03×0.022÷1.1 = $0.0206
Therefore, 1 baht = $0.21 (approx)
Answer:
A. Expensed when incurred.
Explanation:
An incurred expense is basically the cost that are unpaid for. Paid expenses are incurred expenses once you paid for it (Eg credit card).
Explanation:
for me I feel that if you put something on the line maybe like money or a huge deal. Then you put them together to work on it
Answer:
Expected return on equity is 11.33%
Explanation:
Using Weighted Average Cost Capital without tax formula, overall rate of return is given by the formula:
WACC=(Ke*E/V)+(Kd*D/V)
Kd is the cost of debt at 6%
Ke is the cost of equity at 12%
D/E=1/2 which means debt is 1 and equity is 2
D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+2=1/3
E/V=equity/debt+equity=2/1+2=2/3
WACC=(12%*2/3)+(6%*1/3)
WACC=10%
If the firm reduces debt-equity ratio to 1/3,1 is for debt 3 is for equity
D/V=debt/debt+equity=1/1+3=1/4
E/V=equity/debt+equity=3/1+3=3/4
WACC=10%
10%=(Ke*3/4)+(6%*1/4)
10%=(Ke*3/4)+1.5%
10%-1.5%=Ke*3/4
8.5%=Ke*3/4
8.5%=3Ke/4
8.5%*4=3 Ke
34%=3 Ke
Ke=34%/3
Ke=11.33%
