Answer:
$1,100
Explanation:
EBIT = Sales - Costs - Depreciation
= $9,000 - $6,000 - $1,500
= $1,500
Net income = EBIT - Tax @ 40%
= $1,500 - $600
= $900
Operating cash flow = Net income + Depreciation
= $900 + $1,500
= $2,400
Free cash flows:
= Operating cash flow - Increase in working capital - Capital expenditure
= $2,400 - $500 - $800
= $1,100
Answer:
name, title, salary, and dates of employment.
Explanation:
Im not sure with my answer ♥️
Answer:
1. Technical improvements cause production costs to decline, which causes supply to increase and prices to decrease.
2. Decreased unemployment causes consumer incomes to increase which causes demand to increase and hence price to increase.
Explanation:
Demand refers to a consumer's desire to purchase a particular good or service at a given time for a specific price. Supply on the other hand, is the willingness of a producer to produce a particular good or service at a given time for specific price.
1. Production cost is a factor that influences supply. For example, cost of labor or raw material cost. When production costs fall, more products can be produced at a lesser cost. Hence'
- The supply curve shifts right from S1 to S2.
- This causes quantity supplied to increase from QS1 to QS2
- And price to fall from P2 to P1. Please refer Diagram 1 in attachment.
2. When unemployment decreases, it means that more people are working in the economy and hence their incomes are also higher. This means there is a higher purchasing power and also higher demand for products. Hence,
- The demand curve shifts from D1 to D2.
- This causes quantity demanded to increase from QD1 to QD2
- And price to increase from P1 to P2. Please refer Diagram 2 in attachment.
The study of an agent's or individual's decisions is known as decision theory. The official decision-making process concludes with evaluation. Evaluating the consequences may assist the decision-maker in learning lessons that will help her make better decisions in the future.
- Loss aversion is the correct answer because the general notion of the "loss-aversion" theory is that if an individual is provided with two equal alternatives, one of which is presented in terms of prospective profits and the other in terms of potential losses, the former option will be chosen.
- Loss aversion is a cognitive bias or psychological phenomenon that explains why the agony of losing is twice as powerful psychologically as the pleasure of winning.
Therefore, representativeness, cognitive bias, and overconfidence are not factors relative to an arbitrary decision distortion. So, Loss aversion is the correct response to the question.
For more information regarding arbitrary baseline, refer to the link:
brainly.com/question/11224360