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Pavel [41]
3 years ago
12

If u.s. firms attempt to use covered interest arbitrage to capitalize on the high argentine peso interest rate, what forces shou

ld occur?
Business
1 answer:
lesya [120]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is: Downward pressure on the Argentine peso's forward rate

Explanation:

Forward rates are interest rates applicable to financial transactions that will happen in the future.

Currently the Argentine peso is yielding a high interest rate. If American firms try to benefit from this by investing in financial transactions involving Argentine pesos, they will eventually put downward pressure to reduce Argentine peso's forward rate. As the demand for Argentine pesos increase, they will yield lower interest rates.

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What finger do you use to strike the T key?
dsp73

Answer:

Pointer finger or middle finger

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Lindsay is Jon's manager and calls him into her office after everyone else has gone home for the day. She closes the door and te
Ostrovityanka [42]

Answer: Lindsay has not committed a defamation tort

Explanation:

Defamation is when the reputation of an individual in being damaged. In s case whereby one believes that his or her reputation has being damaged by another person, the person sue under the defamation theory.

In the analysis above, we can deduce that Lindsay has not committed a defamation tort.

5 0
3 years ago
Matt Winne​, Inc. issued $ 1 comma 000 comma 000 of 9​%, nine​-year bonds payable on January​ 1, 2018. The market interest rate
alekssr [168]

Answer:

1) $1,223,163

2) bond premium amortization coupon 1 = $8,305

bond premium amortization coupon 2 = $8,554

3)

January 1, 2018, bonds are issued

Dr Cash 1,223,163

    Cr Bonds payable 1,000,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 223,163

4)

June 30, 2018, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 36,695

Dr Premium on bonds payable 8,305

    Cr Cash 45,000

5)

December 31, 2018, second coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 36,446

Dr Premium on bonds payable 8,554

    Cr Cash 45,000

Explanation:

bonds price = PV of face value + PV of coupons

PV of face value = $1,000,000 / 1.03²⁰ = $553,675.75

PV of coupon payments = $45,000 x 14.8775 (annuity factor 3%, 20 payments) = $669,487.50

issue price = $553,675.75 + $669,487.50 = $1,223,163.25 ≈ $1,223,163

Dr Cash 1,223,163

    Cr Bonds payable 1,000,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 223,163

amortization coupon 1 = $45,000 - ($1,223,163 x 3%) = $45,000 - $36,695 = $8,305

amortization coupon 2 = $45,000 - ($1,214,858 x 3%) = $45,000 - $36,446 = $8,554

4 0
3 years ago
Complete this analogy: The computer is to hardware as a productivity program is to _____.
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

3. Software

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Reason for a bimodel distribution
DedPeter [7]

The reason for a bimodel distribution is that a bimodal distribution may occasionally result from merging data from two processes or populations.

<h3>What is a bimodel distribution?</h3>
  • Two modes comprise a bimodal distribution. In other words, the results of two distinct processes are integrated into a single collection of data.
  • The distribution sometimes goes by the name "double-peaked." Consider the distribution of production data over two shifts in a manufacturing facility.
  • Bimodal distributions frequently happen as a result of underlying events.
  • A bimodal distribution, for instance, can be seen in the amount of patrons who visit a restaurant each hour because people typically eat out for lunch and dinner.
  • The bimodal distribution is brought on by the underlying human behavior.
  • If a data set has two modes, it is bimodal. This indicates that no particular data value has the highest frequency of occurrence. Instead, the highest frequency is tied between two data values.

Learn more about bimodel distribution here:

brainly.com/question/14971511

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7 months ago
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