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2 years ago

9

"The production supervisor estimates that the ending work-in-process is 16 percent complete. Compute the cost of paint transferr

ed to finished goods and the amount in work-in-process ending inventory as of July 31"

1 answer:

Flauer [41]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Explanation: see attachment

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The Sherman Antitrust Act A. was concerned with self-interest dominated Nash equilibriums in prisoners' dilemma games. B. restri

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Answer:

B. restricted the ability of competitors to engage in cooperative agreements

Explanation:

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2 years ago

Fire Out Company manufactures its product, Vitadrink, through two manufacturing processes:

navik [9.2K]

Answer:

Entries are given

Explanation:

We will record assets and expenses on the debit as they increase during the year and will record liabilities and capital on the credit side as they increase during the year or vice versa.

Account DEBIT CREDIT

1

raw material inventory 300,000

accounts payable 300,000

-

2

work in process inventory- Mixing 210,000 -

work in process inventory- Packaging 45,000

raw material inventory 255,000

-

3

Factory payroll 258,900 -

Wages payable 258,900

-

4

work in process Labor- Mixing 182,500 -

work in process Labor Packaging 76,400

Factory payroll 258,900

-

5

Manufacturing overhead 810,000 -

overhead payable 810,000

-

6

work in process Mixing 672,000 -

work in process Packaging 144,000

Manufacturing overhead 816,000

-

7

work in process Labor Packaging 979,000 -

work in process Labor- Mixing 979,000

-

8

Finished goods 1,315,000 -

work in process Labor Packaging 1,315,000

-

9

Accounts receivable 2,500,000 -

Sales 2,500,000

-

Cost of goods sold 1,604,000 -

Finished goods 1,604,000

4 0

2 years ago

Dixie Mart plans to pay dividends of $1.36, $1.15, $1.35, and $0.40 at the end of the next four years, respectively. After that,

Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is C. $46.50.

Explanation:

The current value of one share of stock is the present value of all expected future cash flows. The present value (PV) of cash flows in each year is calculated as follows.

PV = Future value / (1 + Rate of return)^Number of years

The future value is the dividend received on the share in a particular year while the rate of return is 11.4% (i.e. 0.114).

Applying the above formula,

$PV_{1} = 1.36 / (1 + 0.114)^{1} = 1.221\\$

$PV_{2} = 1.15 / (1 + 0.114)^{2} = 0.927$

$PV_{3} = 1.35 / (1 + 0.114)^{3} = 0.977$

$PV_{4} = 0.40 / (1 +0.114)^{4} = 0.260$

$PV_{6} = 82.40 / (1 + 0.114)^{6} = 43.114$

Current value of share = $1.221 + $0.927 + $0.977 + $0.260 + $43.114

= $46.50

Hence, the correct option is C. $46.50.

6 0

2 years ago