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kvasek [131]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following is mostly likely the next step in the series ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vlad1618 [11]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: calculate the number

everytime the number goes up by 5 so we can assume that it will be 25

step 2: find the letter

it just goes by the alphabet so we can assume it will be e.

the letter always follows the number and it alternates between uppercase and lower case and last time it was uppercase so it will be lowercase.

Therefore it will be 25e

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H(1)=9<br> h(2)=3<br> h(n)=h(n−2)⋅h(n−1)<br> ​what is h(3)
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You always need some time to get up after the alarm has rung. You get up from 10 to 20 minutes later, with any time in that inte
Mama L [17]

Answer:

a) P(x<5)=0.

b) E(X)=15.

c) P(8<x<13)=0.3.

d) P=0.216.

e) P=1.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the function:

f(x)=\left \{ {{\frac{1}{10},\, \, \, 10\leq x\leq 20 } \atop {0, \, \, \, \, \, \,  otherwise }} \right.

a)  We calculate  the probability that you need less than 5 minutes to get up:

P(x

Therefore, the probability is P(x<5)=0.

b) It takes us between 10 and 20 minutes to get up. The expected value is to get up in 15 minutes.

E(X)=15.

c) We calculate  the probability that you will need between 8 and 13 minutes:

P(8\leq x\leq 13)=P(10\leqx\leq 13)\\\\P(8\leq x\leq 13)=\int_{10}^{13} f(x)\, dx\\\\P(8\leq x\leq 13)=\int_{10}^{13} \frac{1}{10} \, dx\\\\P(8\leq x\leq 13)=\frac{1}{10} \cdot [x]_{10}^{13}\\\\P(8\leq x\leq 13)=\frac{1}{10} \cdot (13-10)\\\\P(8\leq x\leq 13)=\frac{3}{10}\\\\P(8\leq x\leq 13)=0.3

Therefore, the probability is P(8<x<13)=0.3.

d)  We calculate the probability that you will be late to each of the 9:30am classes next week:

P(x>14)=\int_{14}^{20} f(x)\, dx\\\\P(x>14)=\int_{14}^{20} \frac{1}{10} \, dx\\\\P(x>14)=\frac{1}{10} [x]_{14}^{20}\\\\P(x>14)=\frac{6}{10}\\\\P(x>14)=0.6

You have 9:30am classes three times a week.  So, we get:

P=0.6^3=0.216

Therefore, the probability is P=0.216.

e)  We calculate the probability that you are late to at least one 9am class next week:

P(x>9.5)=\int_{10}^{20} f(x)\, dx\\\\P(x>9.5)=\int_{10}^{20} \frac{1}{10} \, dx\\\\P(x>9.5)=\frac{1}{10} [x]_{10}^{20}\\\\P(x>9.5)=1

Therefore, the probability is P=1.

3 0
3 years ago
Whatt is the justification of the 2 step of the proof?
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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