Answer:
A. Churning
Explanation:
Employee Churning is also known as employee turn-over which is an act of laying off employees while recruiting new ones. It is a measure always taken to conserve a company's limited resources. The turnover rate is given as the percentage of employees being laid off or leaving workers over a period of time. There are a lot of factors contributing to churning such as downsizing through attrition either due to recession or scarcity of company's resources.
This phenomenon best illustrates how a progressive income-tax system serves as an automatic stabilizer for the economy.
<h3>What is an automatic stabilizer?</h3>
Automatic stabilizers are stabilizers that adjust the economy automatically without the intervention of external agents . Examples include progressive tax and transfer payments. A progressive tax is a tax structure where those who earn higher income are taxed more and those that earn less pay less amount of tax.
In an expansion, progressive tax increases the tax paid and this reduces disposable income. In a recession, tax paid is reduced and this increases disposable income
Here are the options:
increases crowding out in the economy
decreases real interest rates in the economy
offsets the timing problem for fiscal policy
Serves as an automatic stabiler for the economy
To learn more about taxes, please check: brainly.com/question/25311567
#SPJ1
Answer:
d)$1,100 long-term capital gain
Explanation:
Given the information from the question. We know that a long-term capital gain or loss comes from investment that was possessed for a year or longer. However in this case, since the necklace was a gift .Therefore, there were no capital gain in 2014. In 2016, Lindsey sold the necklace for $1200. Therefore, the capital gain on the necklace will calculated as $1200- $100 = $1100. Where the $100 is a cost purchase for the previous owner. Therefore, long-term capital gain is $1100 which is option D.
Answer:
The stock’s value per share is $10.42
Explanation:
For:
FCF1 = Expected cash flow of the firm
= $25 million
WACC = 10%
g = 4%
Firm value = FCF1/(WACC - g)
= 25,000,000/(0.10 - 0.04)
= $416,666,666.67
We know that there is no debt & preferred stock, so the firm value will be equal to Equity value
:
Firm value = Equity value
= $416,666,666.67
stock value per share = Equity Value/No. of share outstanding
= $416,666,666.67/40,000,000
= $10.42 per share
Therefore, The stock’s value per share is $10.42
Answer:
$26.30
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the investor's valuation of this stock
Using this formula
Investor's valuation of the stock = [Dividend / (1 + rate)] + [Selling price / (1 + rate)]
Let plug in the formula
Investor's valuation of the stock = [$0.24 / (1 + 0.15)] + [$30 / (1 + 0.15)]
Investor's valuation of the stock = $0.21 + $26.09
Investor's valuation of the stock = $26.30
Therefore the investor's valuation of this stock will be $26.30