Answer:
6:1
Explanation:
Net credit sales is $120,000
Account receivable is $20,000
Cash collection on credit sales is $100,000
.
Therefore the receivables turnover ratio can be calculated as follows
= 120,000/20,000
= 6:1
Hence receivable turnover ratio is 6:1
Answer:
Malcolm is a professional writer. He has already published many best-sellers. One of his friends expressed interest in knowing more about his writing process, so Malcolm showed his friend a few of his first drafts. The friend observed that the drafts were nothing like the final book, and the writing seemed amateurish compared to Malcolm's published work. When asked about it, Malcolm said that it was the normal way of things. In this scenario, the following is the reason of this:
A) Malcolm would have revised his work many times before he was satisfied with it.
Explanation:
- The option A is best reason because generally a writer doesn't break his or her flow while writing and that is what Malcolm would have done. After, he would have revised his work many times until he was satisfied.
- The option B is not correct as it is not possible to change the book of a writer entirely by the publishing company.
- The option C is also incorrect as the drafts were not long and cohesive because his friend found the draft amateurish but not perfect.
- The option D is incorrect as it is not true that writers only create first draft and other people produce all other subsequent drafts.
Answer:
The correct answer is a) investments in new facilities.
Explanation:
Business investment is the main way to obtain benefits in the short, long or medium term. For this, it is necessary to invest a certain capital in business or activities that allow the investor to increase it over time.
In the case of financial investment, capital is used to acquire securities, securities and other financial documents through which to obtain a benefit through the interest earned on them.
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "c. Credit cards are canceled due to poor payment history." a sign of credit trouble is that <span>Credit cards are canceled due to poor payment history.</span>
Answer:
$15.64
Explanation:
first we must determine the market value of the bond without the warrants:
PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)⁵⁰ = $179.05
PV of coupon payments = $25 x 23.45562 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 50 periods) = $586.39
market value = $765.44
the market value of the 15 warrants = $1,000 - $765.44 = $234.56
market value per warrant = $234.56 / 15 = $15.64