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Ugo [173]
3 years ago
11

Malaya Ramirez is organizing marketing research in Central American countries for a large American corporation that is intereste

d in expanding its market. The survey Malaya is using was written in English and then translated into Spanish for use by Spanish-speaking respondents. Which of the following is it most important for Malaya do before administering this questionnaire to a sample of the market?
A) make sure that the survey includes both open-ended and closed-ended questions
B) decide whether to focus on primary or secondary data
C) determine which type of research instrument to use
D) have the questionnaire translated back into English to check for accuracy
E) determine whether to focus on descriptive or causal objectives
Business
1 answer:
nydimaria [60]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": have the questionnaire translated back into English to check for accuracy.

Explanation:

<em>Translating </em>is the activity by which the message given in a language is provided written in a different language. However, all languages are not the same and during the translation, meaning can be lost. Besides, specific terminology could make the translation difficult for the translator.

Thus, for accuracy purposes Malaya Ramirez should have the English-Spanish translation checked, making it be translated back into English.

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Net credit sales $120,000 Average accounts receivable 20,000 Cash collections on credit sales 100,000 What is the receivables tu
Kazeer [188]

Answer:

6:1

Explanation:

Net credit sales is $120,000

Account receivable is $20,000

Cash collection on credit sales is $100,000

.

Therefore the receivables turnover ratio can be calculated as follows

= 120,000/20,000

= 6:1

Hence receivable turnover ratio is 6:1

4 0
3 years ago
Malcolm is a professional writer. He has already published many best-sellers. One of his friends expressed interest in knowing m
maxonik [38]

Answer:

Malcolm is a professional writer. He has already published many best-sellers. One of his friends expressed interest in knowing more about his writing process, so Malcolm showed his friend a few of his first drafts. The friend observed that the drafts were nothing like the final book, and the writing seemed amateurish compared to Malcolm's published work. When asked about it, Malcolm said that it was the normal way of things. In this scenario, the following is the reason of this:

A) ​Malcolm would have revised his work many times before he was satisfied with it.

Explanation:

  • The option A is best reason because generally a writer doesn't break his or her flow while writing and that is what Malcolm would have done. After, he would have revised his work many times until he was satisfied.
  • The option B is not correct as it is not possible to change the book of a writer entirely by the publishing company.
  • The option C is also incorrect as the drafts were not long and cohesive because his friend found the draft amateurish but not perfect.
  • The option D is incorrect as it is not true that writers only create first draft and other people produce all other subsequent drafts.

4 0
3 years ago
Long-term capacity plans deal with: a) investments in new facilities. b) workforce size. c) inventories. d) overtime budgets.
kaheart [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is a) investments in new facilities.

Explanation:

Business investment is the main way to obtain benefits in the short, long or medium term. For this, it is necessary to invest a certain capital in business or activities that allow the investor to increase it over time.

In the case of financial investment, capital is used to acquire securities, securities and other financial documents through which to obtain a benefit through the interest earned on them.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a sign of credit trouble?
Aleks04 [339]
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "c. Credit cards are canceled due to poor payment history." a sign of credit trouble is that <span>Credit cards are canceled due to poor payment history.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
A bond with 15 detachable warrants has just been offered for sale at $1,000.00 . The bond matures in 25 years and pays a semi-an
ad-work [718]

Answer:

$15.64

Explanation:

first we must determine the market value of the bond without the warrants:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.5%)⁵⁰ = $179.05

PV of coupon payments = $25 x 23.45562 (PV annuity factor, 3.5%, 50 periods) = $586.39

market value = $765.44

the market value of the 15 warrants = $1,000 - $765.44 = $234.56

market value per warrant = $234.56 / 15 = $15.64

6 0
3 years ago
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