The franchaiser may supply financing
Answer:
a.Company A has a lower return on assets (ROA).
c.Company A has a lower times interest earned (TIE) ratio.
That is options a and c
Explanation:
For company A to have high debt ratio means it has a higher debt which will reduce earnings. Company A's earnings will be less than Company B's.
ROA= Net income/Total assets
Since Company A's income is less than Company B's ROA for Company A will be less than that for Company B.
TIE = Earnings before Interest and Tax/Interest
Due to higher debt of company A it's interest will be higher resulting in low TIE.
Answer:
You get the highest net income in year 2 with <u>Units-of-production method.</u>
Explanation:
Schedule of depreciation expense, accumulated depreciation, and book value per year for the equipment under the three depreciation methods is attached.
<u>Straight-line
</u>
Depreciation expense 2nd year=$5.000=(Original Value -Residual Value)/Useful life
<u>Units-of-production
</u>
Units of Production Rate=2.5=(Original Value -Residual Value)/estimated productive life
Depreciation expense 2nd year= 7250
<u>
Double-declining-balance.
</u>
Depreciation rate 20,00% 1/useful life *100
Depreciation expense 2nd year= 6720
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
EBIT = Sales revenues - Depreciation - Other operating costs
= $39,500 - $10,000 - $17,000
= $12,500
EBT/PBT = EBIT - Interest expense
= $12,500 - $4,000
= $8,500
PAT = EBT - Tax rate
= $8,500 - 35% of $8,500
= $8,500 - $2,975
= $5,525
CFAT = PAT + Depreciation
= $5,525 + $10,000
= $15,525
Therefore, the Year 1 cash flow is $15,525.
