40 = x% of 32
32x = 40
x = 40/32
x = 1.25
multiply by 100 to convert to percentage...
x = 125%
40 is 125% of 32
(x+6)(x+8) = 0
x = -6 or x = -8
I'm just wondering, does the equation happen to be 2x^2 + 14x + 48? That would make more sense with the answer I got.
Answer:
i11, i26, i20, i21
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, so there's an order to imaginary numbers. At the 1st power, it's i. At the second, it's -1. At the 3rd, it's -i. At the 4th, it's 1. And at the 5th, it restarts.
Using the distributive property, an equivalent is
6g +24
