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dolphi86 [110]
3 years ago
10

You own some equipment that you purchased four years ago at a cost of $287,000. The equipment is five-year property for MACRS. T

he MACRS rates are .2, .32, .192, .1152, .1152, .0576, for Years 1 to 6, respectively. You are considering selling the equipment today for $105,000. Which one of the following statements is correct if your tax rate is 24 percent and you claim no bonus depreciation? The tax due on the sale is $17,357.76.
The book value today is $49,406.40.
The accumulated depreciation to date is $270,468.80.
The taxable amount on the sale is $49,593.60.
The aftertax salvage value is $81,707.76.
Business
1 answer:
Xelga [282]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

I checked the web and found a similar question with exact same choices but different tax rate(35%) which doesn't apply for this question. Therefore, there is no correct answer in the choices given. The correct solution is as follows;

Explanation:

Depreciation schedule using the MACRS rates;

<u>Year</u>     <u>Depreciation</u><u>   </u>                      <u>Accumulated depreciation  </u>    

Yr1     0.2*287000 = 57,400             57,400

Yr2    0.32*287,000 = 91,840             57,400 + 91,840 = 149,240

Yr3     0.192* 287,000 = 55,104         55,104 + 149,240 = 204,344

Yr4   0.1152 * 287,000 = 33,062.40      33,062.40 + 204,344 = 237,406.40  

Therefore, book value today is $287,000 - $237,406.40 = $49,593.60

<em>Aftertax salvage value = Salvage - (Salvage-Book value)*tax</em>

= 105,000 - (105,000 - 49,593.60)*0.24

=105,000 - 13,297.536

= $91,702.46

Therefore, none of the choices is correct.

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Explanation:

Hi, first, we need to find the price of the stock in year 9, since in year 10 is when the company starts to pay dividends. I know it could sound weird, but due the nature of the following formula, all future cash flows are brought 1 period before the first payment, in our case, if the first dividend is going to be paid in year 10, all the future cash flows of the share (future dividends) are going to be brought to year 9. The formula as follows.

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So the present Value (in year 9) is $228.31, but we need it in the present, therefore, we have to use another formula to bring this value to present value, given the required rate of return.

Present Value=\frac{FutureValue}{(1+Return)^{n} }

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Everything shold look like this.

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Based on my knowledge of inflation and its redistribution of purchasing power, I would advise my older parents to embark on Plan B by <u>purchasing a business</u>.

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Learn more about inflation and purchasing power at brainly.com/question/16467725

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