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Ivahew [28]
4 years ago
6

A cross-border alliance is:

Business
1 answer:
Marianna [84]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: c. A cooperative agreement between two or more firms from a different national background.

Explanation:A cross-border alliance is a cooperative agreement between two or more firms from a different national backgrounds for the purpose of pursuing mutual interests through sharing of resources and capabilities. There are many reasons for firms to enter into a cross-border alliance. Some of the reasons could be to enter new markets where neither could do alone or to share and gain access to the other firms resources and information.

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The study of​ ________ reveals a number of ways to enhance your relationship strategy and add value. this helps the salesperson
tamaranim1 [39]

The answer to the blank space is etiquette and manners.

When a salesperson receives training to enhance their etiquette and manners, it would help with their self-confidence when meeting potential clients or customers. It would also help them in establishing a good relationship with these individuals, since people are more receptive to people with good manners.

4 0
3 years ago
For business combinations involving less than 100 percent ownership, the acquirer recognizes and measures all of the following a
Mariana [72]

Answer:

b. Liabilities assumed, at book value.

Explanation:

International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) and International Accounting Standards (IAS) require everything (Assets, Liabilities and Non-controlling interest) to be measured at the fair market value, the amount a third-party would pay on the open market, at the time of acquisition — the date that the acquirer took control of the target company.

3 0
3 years ago
You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $245,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

Techron I . According to the calculations, Techron I reports a better performance.

Explanation:

Techron I

Cost of Machine = $245,000

Useful Life = 3 years

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Machine / Useful Life

Annual Depreciation = $245,000 / 3

Annual Depreciation = $81,666.67

Salvage Value = $40,000

After-tax Salvage Value = $40,000 * (1 - 0.22)

After-tax Salvage Value = $31,200

Annual OCF = Pretax Operating Costs * (1 - tax) + tax * Depreciation

Annual OCF = -$63,000 * (1 - 0.22) + 0.22 * $81,666.67

Annual OCF = -$31,173.33

NPV = -$245,000 - $31,173.33 * PVIFA(10%, 3) + $31,200 * PVIF(10%, 3)

NPV = -$245,000 - $31,173.33 * 2.4869 + $31,200 * 0.7513

NPV = -$299,084.39

EAC = NPV / PVIFA(10%, 3)

EAC = -$299,084.39 / 2.4869

EAC = -$120,263.94

Techron II:

Cost of Machine = $420,000

Useful Life = 5 years

Annual Depreciation = Cost of Machine / Useful Life

Annual Depreciation = $420,000 / 5

Annual Depreciation = $84,000

Salvage Value = $40,000

After-tax Salvage Value = $40,000 * (1 - 0.22)

After-tax Salvage Value = $31,200

Annual OCF = Pretax Operating Costs * (1 - tax) + tax * Depreciation

Annual OCF = -$35,000 * (1 - 0.22) + 0.22 * $84,000

Annual OCF = -$8,820

NPV = -$420,000 - $8,820 * PVIFA(10%, 5) + $31,200 * PVIF(10%, 5)

NPV = -$420,000 - $8,820 * 3.7908 + $31,200 * 0.6209

NPV = -$434,062.78

EAC = NPV / PVIFA(10%, 5)

EAC = -$434,062.78 / 3.7908

EAC = -$114,504.27

5 0
3 years ago
Craigmont uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts. Its year-end unadjusted trial balance shows Accounts
sineoko [7]

The amount of the bad debts expense adjusting entry is:$7665.

<h3>Bad debt expenses</h3>

Using this formula

Bad debt expenses=Sales×Estimated sales percentage

Where:

Sales=$1,095,000

Estimated sales percentage=0.7%

Let plug in the formula

Bad debt expenses=$1,095,000×0.7%

Bad debt expenses= $7,665

Therefore the amount of the bad debts expense adjusting entry is:$7665.

Learn more about bad debt expenses here:brainly.com/question/18568784

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5 0
2 years ago
If real gdp is $200 billion, full employment gdp is $400 billion, and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.75, then congress
madreJ [45]

If real GDP is $200 billion, full employment GDP is $400 billion, and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.75, then Congress should-----

increase government purchases by spending by $50 billion.

What is marginal propensity?

In economics, the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is defined as the proportion of an aggregate raise in pay that a consumer spends on the consumption of goods and services, as opposed to saving it.

Full employment:

is an economic situation in which all available labor resources are being used in the most efficient way possible. Full employment embodies the highest amount of skilled and unskilled labor that can be employed within an economy at any given time.

Learn more about real GDP:

brainly.com/question/24156212

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3 0
2 years ago
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