Answer:
D) 200 percent profit; 100 percent loss.
Explanation:
There is a 50% chance that the company will make profit (20% profit) and 50% chance that it will lose money (20% loss).
Balin borrows $90 and invests $10 from his own money.
50% profit chance = $120 - $90 = $30 (200% profit)
50% loss chance = $80 - $90 = -$10 (100% loss)
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Based on that attachment given, we should note that the following was gotten as:
1. Inventory in process beginning:
This was gotten as:
= 2,400 × 65%
= 2400 × 0.65
= 1,560
Started and completed:
= 10,800 - 2,400
= 8,400
Inventory in process ending
= 1,900 × 60%
= 1900 × 0.6
= 1,140
Answer:
Store A = $9
Store B = $8
Store C = $10
Explanation:
Finance charges calculated by average daily balance finance charges basis, adjusted balance method finance charges basis and Previous Balance Method Finance Charge basis is calculated as follows
Store A:
Average Daily Balance Finance Charge basis = ($500 + $400) /2
Average Daily Balance Finance Charge basis = $450
Finance Charges = $450 x (24% / 12)
Finance Charges = $9
Store B:
Adjusted Balance Method Finance Charge basis = $500 - $100
Adjusted Balance Method Finance Charge basis = $400
Finance Charges = $400 x (24% / 12)
Finance Charges = $8
Store C:
Previous Balance Method Finance Charge basis = $500 - $0
Previous Balance Method Finance Charge basis = $800
Finance Charges = $500 x (24% / 12)
Finance Charges = $10
Answer:
Net income= $27,960
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed costs= $30,000
contribution margin ratio= 0.63
Sales= $92,000
<u>First, we need to calculate the total contribution margin:</u>
Total contribution margin= 92,000*0.63= 57,960
<u>Now, the net income:</u>
Net income= 57,960 - 30,000
Net income= $27,960
Answer and Explanation:
(A) E(P) = (0.6) × ($2800) + (0.4) × ($2250)
= $1680+$900
= $2,580
E(S) = (0.6) × (1.40)+(0.4) × (1.5)
= 0.84 + 0.60
= $1.44
Var(S) = (0.6)(1.40 - 1.44)² + (.4)(1.50 - 1.44)²
= .00096+.00144
= 0.0024.
Cov(P,S) = (0.6)(2800-2580)(1.4-1.44) + (0.4)(2250-2580)(1.5-1.44)
= -5.28-7.92
= -13.20
b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S)
= -13.20/.0024
= -£5,500.
there is a negative exposure. as the pound gets stronger/weaker against the dollar the dollar value of british holding goes higher.
(B) b²Var(S) = (-5500)²(.0024) = 72,600($)²
(C). i would Buy 5,500 forward to hedge exchange risk exposure. By doing this, i can eliminate the volatility of the dollar value of your British asset that is due to the volatility of the exchange rate
