400 because I said so and u are asking me is here is the answer
Answer: D) Inverse does not exist
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
The top row is 0 0 , which makes the determinant equal to zero.
The reciprocal of 0 is undefined so there cannot be an inverse for this matrix.
1. Angles ADC and CDB are supplementary, thus
m∠ADC+m∠CDB=180°.
Since m∠ADC=115°, you have that m∠CDB=180°-115°=65°.
2. Triangle BCD is isosceles triangle, because it has two congruent sides CB and CD. The base of this triangle is segment BD. Angles that are adjacent to the base of isosceles triangle are congruent, then
m∠CDB=m∠CBD=65°.
The sum of the measures of interior angles of triangle is 180°, therefore,
m∠CDB+m∠CBD+m∠BCD=180° and
m∠BCD=180°-65°-65°=50°.
3. Triangle ABC is isosceles, with base BC. Then
m∠ABC=m∠ACB.
From the previous you have that m∠ABC=65° (angle ABC is exactly angle CBD). So
m∠ACB=65°.
4. Angles BCD and DCA together form angle ACB. This gives you
m∠ACB=m∠ACD+m∠BCD,
m∠ACD=65°-50°=15°.
Answer: 15°.
Answer:
$6,540
Step-by-step explanation:
In 1 year, the trainer contributes 6% of 25,000;
0.06*25000= $1500
The employer matches 9% of his contributions; 9% of 1,500
0.09*1500= $135
Therefore, in 1 year, the 401(k) account will have 1500+135=$1635
This means that in order to find how much will have ben contributed after 4 years , you multiply $1635 by 4;
1635*4= $6,540
