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JulsSmile [24]
3 years ago
14

The selling price of a product is $8,000. The cost and hassle involved in buying the product is $175. The benefit received from

the product to a buyer is labelled "A." The seller's profit is $400. In this case, which of the following equations will accurately calculate the buyer's value?
Business
1 answer:
Rainbow [258]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

These are the options for the question:

a) A + $8,000

b) $8,000 + $400

c) $8,000 - A

d) A-($8,000 + $175)

e) (A + 400) - ($175)

And this is the correct answer:

d) A-($8,000 + $175)

Explanation:

The buyer's value is the total value that a consumer obtains from a product after substracting the purchase cost, and the cost of the personal effort involved in obtaining the product.

The formula is:

Buyer's Value = Benefit Received - (Selling Price + Cost of Effort to Purchase)

If we plug the amounts into the formula we obtain the correct option:

Buyer's Value = A - ($8,000 + $175)

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Martinez, Inc. reported net income of $2.5 million in 2007. Depreciation for the year was $160,000, accounts receivable decrease
n200080 [17]

Answer:

$2,730,000

Explanation:

Operating activities: It includes those transactions which affect the working capital after net income. The increase in current assets and a decrease in current liabilities would be deducted whereas the decrease in current assets and an increase in current liabilities would be added.  

These changes in working capital would be adjusted. Moreover, the depreciation expense is added to the net income

The preparation of the Cash Flows from Operating Activities—Indirect Method is shown below:

Cash flow from Operating activities - Indirect method

Net income $2,500,000

Adjustment made:

Add : Depreciation expense $160,000

Add: Decrease in accounts receivable $350,000

Less: Decrease in accounts payable -$280,000

Total of Adjustments $230,000

Net Cash flow from Operating activities             $2,730,000

8 0
3 years ago
Journalize the entries to record the following.
vredina [299]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1. Petty cash A/c $1,100

       To Cash A/c $1, 100

(Being the petty cash fund is established)

2. Office supplies A/c Dr $614

   Miscellaneous selling expense A/c Dr $200

   Miscellaneous administrative expense A/c Dr $145

   Cash short and over A/c $26

             To Petty cash A/c $985

(Being the expenses are recorded)

The Cash short and over is computed below:

= $1,100 - $115- $614 - $200 - $145

= $26

4 0
3 years ago
A key disadvantage of exchange-rate targeting is the targeting country can no longer pursue its own independentmonetary policy a
Minchanka [31]
More advantages when domestic monetary and political institutions are not conducive to good monetary policy making.
7 0
3 years ago
When the lorillard tobacco company places ads discouraging teenagers from smoking, they are using which type of institutional ad
Aleksandr-060686 [28]
<span>This is a de-marketing strategy through ads, which are assumed to be digital ads. The assumption is that the digital ad would reach the target audience of teenagers to discourage smoking. This type of marketing campaign shows the tobacco company in a 'responsible' light to the consumer. By discouraging underage use, the consumer can assume that this must be a good company and is honest in their marketing.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
The money multiplier is greater than one because banks: hold the entire amount of deposits as reserves. hold only a fraction of
olganol [36]

Answer:

hold only a fraction of deposits as reserves.

Explanation:

Money multiplier denotes the central bank's ability to create final deposits many times the initial deposits.

They do so because of their partial (fractional) reserve requirement, mandated by central bank, called as Legal Reserve Ratio = LRR

Money Multiplier = Final Deposits / Initial Deposits = 1 / Reserve Requirement

Eg :  Initial Deposits = 100 , LRR = 10%

On getting 100 initial deposits, banks retain 10% ie 10 as reserve, lend out remaining 90.  These 90 spent by borrower come back in the bank account of receiver. Out of 90, banks again retain 10% i.e 9 as reserves, lend 81 . Same process continues until :

Final Deposits = (1 / LRR) x Initial Deposits

Final deposits = (1 /0.1) i.e 10 times initial deposits

= 10,000

7 0
3 years ago
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